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OLga [1]
3 years ago
6

Imagination Dragons Corporation needs to raise funds to finance a plant expansion, and it has decided to issue 15-year zero coup

on bonds with a par value of $1,000 each to raise the money. The required return on the bonds will be 7 percent. Assume semiannual compounding periods. a. What will these bonds sell for at issuance? (Do not round intermediate calculations and round your answer to 2 decimal places, e.g., 32.16.) b. Using the IRS amortization rule, what interest deduction can the company take on these bonds in the first year? In the last year? (Do not round intermediate calculations and round your answers to 2 decimal places, e.g., 32.16.) c. Repeat part (b) using the straight-line method for the interest deduction. (Do not round intermediate calculations and round your answer to 2 decimal places, e.g., 32.16.)

Business
2 answers:
Vladimir79 [104]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

a) Zero coupon bond does not pay periodical interest and formula to compute the value of a zero-coupon bond:

Value = Face Value / (1 +Yield / 2) ** Years to Maturity * 2

b) Interest deduction

After 1 year bond value from the above equation is 437.08

437.08 - 411.99 = 25.09

In the 14th year bond value from the above equation is 942.60

1000 - 942.60 = 57.40

c) Straight Line Method

Total Interest Paid = 1000 - 411.99

= 588.01

For yearly calculation

588.01 / 15 = 39.21

Further computation is done in the image below.

Tomtit [17]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

A) 365.28

B) first year:

25.37593  

and during last year:

66.49

C) straight line will generate interest evenly throughout the life of the bond:

(1,000 - 365.28) / 15 = 42.32 interest expense per year

Explanation:

We solve for the present value of a lump sum as the zero-coupon is a bond with no interest payment only maturity.

Is important to notice the required return is compounding semiannually thus, there are two payment per year and the rate should be halved:

\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV  

Maturity  $1,000.00

time  30.00 (15 years x 2 payment per year)

rate  0.03500 (7% annual compounding semiannually)

\frac{1000}{(1 + 0.035)^{30} } = PV  

PV   356.2784

Now, we calculate the interest expense for the year

356.2784 x (1.035 x 1.035 -1 ) =  25.37593  

For the last year

\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV  

Maturity  $1,000.00

time  2.00

rate  0.03500

\frac{1000}{(1 + 0.035)^{2} } = PV  

PV   933.5107

1000 maturity - 933.51 value one year before = 66.49

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5 0
3 years ago
Interest is eligible to be capitalized as part of an asset's cost, rather than being expensed immediately, when:a. The asset is
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Answer and Explanation:

d. All of these answer choices are correct.

7 0
3 years ago
The internal growth rate of a firm is best described as the: Multiple Choice Minimum growth rate achievable assuming a 100 perce
telo118 [61]

Answer:

The answer is: Maximum growth rate achievable excluding external financing of any kind.

Explanation:

The internal growth rate (IGR) of a company is the maximum level of business operations at which a company can function with its own resources, without obtaining external financing through issuing new debt or equity.

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6 0
3 years ago
Pompeii, Inc., has sales of $50,000, costs of $23,000, depreciation expense of $2,250, and interest expense of $2,000. If the ta
Zielflug [23.3K]

Answer:

operating cash flow = $21307.5

Explanation:

given data

sales = $50,000

costs = $23,000

depreciation expense = $2,250

interest expense = $2,000

tax rate = 23 percent

solution

we get here operating cash flow for that

EBIT  = Sales - Costs - Depreciation   .............1

EBIT  = $50,000 - $23,000 - $2,250

EBIT   = $24750

and taxes is

taxes = tax rate × EBIT    ..........2

taxes = 0.23 × $24750

taxes = $5692.5

so here operating cash flow that is

operating cash flow = EBIT + Depreciation - Taxes   ..........3

operating cash flow = $24750 + $2,250 - $5692.5

operating cash flow = $21307.5

6 0
3 years ago
You invest $100 in a risky asset with an expected rate of return of 0.21 and a standard deviation of 0.21 and a T-bill with a ra
WARRIOR [948]

Answer:

-0.4242

Explanation:

Ra = 0.21 or 21%

Rf = 0.045 or 4.5%

Rp = 0.28 or 28%

Expected return on a portfolio is weighted average return of its assets :

Rp = Rf*(1-w) + Ra*w

28 = 4.5*(1-w) + 21*w

28 = 4.5 - 4.5w + 21w

28 - 4.5 = 21w - 4.5w

21w - 4.5w = 28 - 4.5

16.5w = 23.5

w = 23.5/16.5

w = 1.4242

Hence, weight of risky asset = 1.4242

So, Weight of risk free asset = 1 - 1.4242

Weight of risk free asset = -0.4242

5 0
3 years ago
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