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Iteru [2.4K]
3 years ago
8

A two-step binomial tree is used to value an option on the Australian dollar (AUD). The strike price is 1.00 USD per AUD and the

expiration date is in 6 months. Each step is 3 months. The current price of one AUD is 1.04 USD. The US risk-free rate is 2.0%, and the AUD risk-free rate is 2.5%. The exchange rate has a volatility of 6% per annum.
a. What is the proportional up movement, u, for the currency?
b. What is the probability of an up movement, p?
c. What is the price of an American call option on the currency?
Business
1 answer:
ser-zykov [4K]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

a.) The proportional up movement , u, for the currency can be calculated using the following formula:

u = eStd Dev * Square root of t

u = e0.06*square root of 0.25

u = 1.0305

b.) Probability of up movement, p , = (a - d) / (u - d)

where   a = ert where r = 0.025, t = 0.25

a = e0.025*0.25 = 1.0063

d = 1 / u = 1 / 1.3050 = 0.7663

p = (1.0063-0.7663) / (1.3050-0.7663)

p = 0.46

1-p = 1-0.46 = 0.54

c)  Price of an American Call Option on the currency : we use binomial tree for that , as follows: The amounts below line indicate the option price and figures above line indicate the underlying asset price which is 0.55555

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Sharon joined a team that was responsible for boosting sales on last year's electronic models. The team began in January and was
Natalija [7]

Answer:

A. Punctuated equilibrium

Reason:

Definition is a sequence of team development during which not much gets done until the halfway point of a project, after which teams make necessary changes to complete the project on time.

3 0
3 years ago
1) Banks hold excess and secondary reserves to
o-na [289]
1) Banks hold excess and secondary reserves toA) reduce the interest-rate risk problem.


2) Which of the following statements most accurately describes the task of bank asset management?
b. Banks seek to have the highest liquidity possible subject to earning a positive rate of return on their operations.

3) The goals of bank asset management include
d. purchasing securities with high returns and low risk.

Hope this helps. Have a nice day.
6 0
3 years ago
LF Corporation, a manufacturer of Mexican foods, contracted in 2014 to purchase 1,500 pounds of a spice mixture at $5.00 per pou
kramer

Answer:

(b) a loss of $750

Explanation:

Given;

Amount of spice mixture to be purchased = 1500 pounds

Price of spice mixture in 2014 = $5.00 per pound

Changed price of sugar mixture = $4.50 per pound

Now,

The amount to be received on the day of contract in 2014

= Amount of spice mixture to be purchased × Price of spice mixture in 2014

= 1500 × $5.00

= $7,500

and,

The amount to be received in 2015

= Amount of spice mixture to be purchased × Price of spice mixture in 2015

= 1500 × $4.50

= $6,750

The difference in Expected amount and the amount to be received

= $7500 - $6750

= $750

Since the amount to be received is less than the expected amount on the day of contract

Therefore,

a loss will be recognized

Hence,

the correct answer is option (b) a loss of $750

5 0
4 years ago
Tony's Market recorded the following events involving a recent purchase of inventory:Received goods for $40,000, terms 2/10, n/3
pantera1 [17]

Answer:

balance of 38,616 debit

Explanation:

     Inventory

Debits    Credits

40,000(A)

              800(B)

   200(C)

              784(D)

38616

(A) the recieved goods increase the inventory balance

(B) when returning the inventory decrease

(C) the shipment cost are necessary to get the ivnentory so are capitalized

(D) the discount decrease both, the cost of inventory and the cash disbursements.

adjusted invoice nominal:

40,000- 800 = 39,200

the commercial terms state a 2% discount which the company received:

39,200 x 0.02 = 784

3 0
4 years ago
Assume a project has normal cash flows. All else equal, which of the following statements is CORRECT?
Step2247 [10]

Answer: B. A project's NPV increases as the WACC declines.

Explanation:

NPV is calculated by discounting the future cashflows at the Weighted Average Cost of Capital. This means that if the WACC is lower, the NPV will be higher because cash flow will not be discounted as much and if the WACC keeps going lower, the NPV keeps rising.

For instance, assume a company invested $10,000 and will get cash inflows of $10,000 for 2 years. What is the NPV at 10% and 15%.

NPV at 10% WACC = -10,000 + 10,000/1.1 + 10,000/1.1²

= -10,000 + 9.090.90 + 8,264.46

= $7,355.36

NPV at 15% WACC = -10,000 + 10,000/1.15 + 10,000/1.15²

= -10,000 + 8,695.65 + 7,561.44

= $6,257.09‬

Notice how NPV dropped when WACC increased.

7 0
3 years ago
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