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USPshnik [31]
3 years ago
14

Why is the product of a rational number and an irrational number irrational?

Mathematics
2 answers:
tangare [24]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

When you multiply and irrational by a rational, you are doing nothing to change the nature of an irrational number. The two numbers have different kinds of properties and though a multiplication can be indicated, there is no way you can change the properties of an irrational number with a rational.

Their properties just do not mix.

It is like take a solvent and mixing it with something that is not a solvent. You cannot do anything to anything to the insolvent to make it solvent simply by adding more. Their properties remain in tact.

Take 3 * 4√7

The properties of the 3 and 4 remain the same when multiplied and they can be combined. 3*4 = 12

But nothing can be done with √7. The 3 cannot effect it, anymore than what the 4 did.

pickupchik [31]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

A. because the product is always a non-terminating, non-repeating decimal.

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The area of a rectangular field is 8811 m2. if the width of the field is 89m, what is the length?
xeze [42]
Length = 99 because...
since you multiply to get the area, in order to find the missing term of an area (in this case its length), you do the opposite of what you started with...so if you multiplied to get the area, you need to divide to get the missing side...
so 8811 divided by 89 = 99
99 x 89 = 8811
4 0
3 years ago
Find the slope of the line that passes through 5,4 and -4,3
dolphi86 [110]

Answer:

1/9

Step-by-step explanation:

4-3/5--4

1/9

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3 years ago
A number cube is labeled 1-6 is rolled 200 times. Numbers 1-4 are rolled 137 times and numbers 5 and 6 are rolled the rest of th
Ainat [17]
No matter the number of times you rolled the dice, the probability of getting a number is always 1/6. But here we can choose 4 numbers ( 1 to 4) hence the probability P( 1 or 2 or 3 or 4) = 4/6 2/3  = 0.6667 = 66.67% (A)
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3 years ago
Manufacture of a certain component requires three different machining operations. Machining time for each operation has a normal
tigry1 [53]

Answer:

0.0314 = 3.14% probability that it takes at most 1 hour of machining time to produce a randomly selected component

Step-by-step explanation:

Normal Probability Distribution:

Problems of normal distributions can be solved using the z-score formula.

In a set with mean \mu and standard deviation \sigma, the z-score of a measure X is given by:

Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}

The Z-score measures how many standard deviations the measure is from the mean. After finding the Z-score, we look at the z-score table and find the p-value associated with this z-score. This p-value is the probability that the value of the measure is smaller than X, that is, the percentile of X. Subtracting 1 by the p-value, we get the probability that the value of the measure is greater than X.

Sum of normal variables:

When normal variables are added, the mean is the sum of the means while the standard deviation is the square root of the sum of the variances.

The mean values are 20, 15, and 30 min, respectively:

This means that \mu = 20 + 15 + 30 = 65

The standard deviations are 1, 2, and 1.5 min, respectively.

This means that \sigma = \sqrt{1^2 + 2^2 + 1.5^2} = 2.6926

What is the probability that it takes at most 1 hour of machining time to produce a randomly selected component?

Mean and standard deviation are in minutes, so this is the pvalue of Z when X = 60.

Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}

Z = \frac{60 - 65}{2.6926}

Z = -1.86

Z = -1.86 has a pvalue of 0.0314

0.0314 = 3.14% probability that it takes at most 1 hour of machining time to produce a randomly selected component

7 0
2 years ago
Will give brainliest i rlly need help
Zepler [3.9K]

Answer:

1/6

Step-by-step explanation:

-3/4 - (-1/2) = - 1/4

-2/3 - 5/6 = - 3/2

-1/4 ÷ -3/2

3 0
2 years ago
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