Answer:
Vf = Vi % (1+0,112)ⁿ
Step-by-step explanation:
Vf: value of the company in t years
Vi: value of the company today (2009)
n: number of years after 2009
Let's do an example:
What is the value of the company in 2014? That would mean 5 years later.
Let's replace the data into the formula:
Vf = $9.220.000 % (1+0,112)⁵
Vf = $9.220.000 % 1,700293
Vf = $5.442.592,70 is the value of the company in 2014.
Answer: y= 4 or y= -12
Step-by-step explanation:
Y²-8y+16=64.
Rearrange
Y²-8y+16-64=0
Y²-8y-48=0
(Y²+12y)-(4y-48)=0
Y(y+12)-4(y+12)=0
(Y-4)=0 or (y+12)=0
Y-4=0 or y+12=0
Y=4 or y=-12
The following formula is applicable;
A=P(1+r)^n
Where,
A = Total amount accrued after 10 years (this is the amount from which the yearly withdrawals will be made from for the 30 years after retirement)
P=Amount invested today
r= Annual compound interest for the 10 years before retirement
n= Number of years the investments will be made.
Therefore,
A= Yearly withdrawals*30 years = $25,000*30 = $750,000
r= 9% = 0.09
n= 10 years
P= A/{(1+r)^n} = 750,000/{(1+0.09)^10} = $316,808.11
Therefore, he should invest $316,808.11 today.
Answer:
For inequalities with a greater than sign (>), the first number is always to the right of the second number on the horizontal number line
Step-by-step explanation: