All categories

3 years ago

Absolute value of -4 - 8i

Mathematics

1 answer:

Nitella [24]3 years ago

4 0

√80 because the absolute value for complex numbers of the form a+bi are evaluated as √a²+b²

You might be interested in

I need help!! Please help!!

Lady bird [3.3K]

If she got a 100 on her last test the highest her average would be is an 87%

3 0

3 years ago

Umm it’s to question just label it a and b

xxMikexx [17]

A) Scale of map is 1: 30,000

This is assuming that it meant 1 centimetre = 30,000 metres, for it gives no other information.

Multiply 1 with 30,000: 30,000 x `1 = 30,000

30,000 metres is your answer.

B) Scale is 1 inch: 6 miles. You are given 2.5 inches.

Remember that 1 inch = 6 miles.

Multiply 2.5 to both sides: (2.5) * 1 inch = (2.5) * 6 miles

2.5 inch = 2.5 * 6 miles

2.5 inch = 15 miles

15 miles is your answer.

3 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

The radius of a circular rug is 4 feet. How much ribbing will you need to buy to go around the rug? Use 3 14.

alexira [117]

Answer:

100.48 feet

Step-by-step explanation:

The circumfrence of a circle is represented in the equation C=2\pi r^{2}

So we input the values into the equation C=2(3.14)(4)^2 which when entered into a calculator gives you 100.48feet

5 0

3 years ago

he number of surface flaws in plastic panels used in the interior of automobiles has a Poisson distribution with a mean of 0.02

Yakvenalex [24]

Answer:

a) 98.01%

b) 13.53\%

c) 27.06%

Step-by-step explanation:

Since a car has 10 square feet of plastic panel, the expected value (mean) for a car to have one flaw is 10*0.02 = 0.2

If we call P(k) the probability that a car has k flaws then, as P follows a Poisson distribution with mean 0.2,

$P(k)= \frac{0.2^ke^{-0.2}}{k!}$

In this case, we are looking for P(0)

$P(0)= \frac{0.2^0e^{-0.2}}{0!}=e^{-0.2}=0.9801=98.01\%$

So, the probability that a car has no flaws is 98.01%

Ten cars have 100 square feet of plastic panel, so now the mean is 100*0.02 = 2 flaws every ten cars.

Now P(k) is the probability that 10 cars have k flaws and

$P(k)= \frac{2^ke^{-2}}{k!}$

and

$P(0)= \frac{2^0e^{-2}}{0!}=0.1353=13.53\%$

And the probability that 10 cars have no flaws is 13.53%

Here, we are looking for P(1) with P defined as in b)

$P(1)= \frac{2^1e^{-2}}{1!}=2e^{-2}=0.2706=27.06\%$

Hence, the probability that at most one car has no flaws is 27.06%

6 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

There are 28 students in a class. 13 of the students are boys. Two students from the class are chosen at random. a) If the first

Luba_88 [7]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0

2 years ago