Answer:
i believe it has something to do with absolute power. sorry there isnt a lot of context
Explanation:
The Glorious Revolution was when William of Orange took the English throne from James II in 1688. The event brought a permanent realignment of power within the English constitution.
Answer:
Question 1: Actually, he did not. If he did export and spread the ideals of the Revolution, why did he appoint his brothers and other people to high points in government? Apart from that, they held the position of kings and monarchs which is opposite to the ideals of the Revolution. It should be that the people have the right to decide for themselves but they didn’t. Instead, they lived in fear and rebelled against him.
Question 2: Both revolutions started rather moderately, with people demanding more representation in government. Neither gained the full support of everyone in the respective nations either, as evidenced by Loyalists in the US and counterrevolutions in areas like the Vendee in France. In France, the revolution became more radical and ideological, taking Enlightenment ideals and rationalism to the extreme. The revolution in France also led to the dictatorship of Napoleon and the restoration is Bourbon monarchs, so ultimately a return to the status quo, while the American Revolution was successful in gaining American independence. Furthermore, the French Revolution was fought in France while the American Revolution was fought in the colonies of England and never sought to completely depose George III, just remove his control of the colonies.
