two data sets have the same mean. can you assume that the ranges of the two data sets are about the same? give an example to jus
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Answer:
The multiplicative inverse of y is .
Step-by-step explanation:
Multiplicative inverse implies a value that you would multiply with the given value so as to give 1.
Let the multiplicative inverse of y be represented by a, so that;
a x y = 1
ay = 1
divide both sides by y to have,
a =
Thus, the multiplicative inverse of y is .
This is applicable to any given value. Examples:
i. Given 2, the multiplicative inverse is .
⇒ 2 x = 1
ii. What is the multiplicative inverse of 5?
The required answer is .