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3 years ago

Simplify the expression where possible. (-5x2)^3

Mathematics

1 answer:

Paul [167]3 years ago

6 0

Answer:

-1000

Step-by-step explanation:

1. Do the Parenthesis problem first. (PEDMAS/PEMDAS)

You should then have -10^3

2. Solve with the exponent. (-10 x 10 x 10)

You should then get your final answer, which is -1000.

Any Questions/Concerns?

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Approximate the zeros of the function. Round to the nearest tenth if necessary. f(x) = 4x^2 + 4x - 35. Explain each step on how

svet-max [94.6K]

4x²+4x-35=0
factor: (2x+7)(2x-5)=0
2x+7=0, or 2x-5=0
2x=-7 or 2x=5
x=-3.5 or x=2.5

I don't see any rounding necessary in this case.

when you factor ax²+bx+c, you take the two factors of a and the two factors of c, one factor of a times one factor of c, the other factor of a times the other factors, the sum of the two products make b.
in this case, the factors of 4 is 2 and 2, the factors of -35 is -5 and 7. I line them up in the following way:
2 -5

2 7
then I multiple them diagonally, the top left 2 multiplying the bottom right 7=14, and the other 2 multiplying -5=-10, 14 and -10 make a sum of 4.

if you don't get the desired sum, switch the factors up and down till you have the right combination. Note: Do not switch left and right.

I hope this makes sense to you.

8 0

3 years ago

I really need help I have 20 minutes

nlexa [21]

Answer:

a. -1.7

b. -1.2

c. -0.5

d. 0.6

e. 1.1

Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago

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represents a line that passes through (3, –2) with a slope of negative StartFraction 4 Over 5 EndFraction?

erik [133]

Answer:

$y = \frac{4}{5} x - \frac{22}{5}$

Step-by-step explanation:

$y = mx + b$

$- 2 = \frac{4}{5} (3) + b \\ - 2 = \frac{12}{5} + b \\ - 2 - \frac{12}{5} = b \\ - \frac{10}{5} - \frac{12}{5} = b \\ - \frac{22}{5} = b$

Therefore, the equation of the line that goes through point (3, -2)and has slope ⅘ is

$y = \frac{4}{5} x - \frac{22}{5}$

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2 years ago

Stacy uses a spinner with six equal sections numbered 2, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6 to play a game. Write a probability model for this ex

allsm [11]

Answer:

We estimate to have 8.33 times the number 6 in 50 trials.

Step-by-step explanation:

Let us consider a success to get a 6. In this case, note that the probability of having a 6 in one spin is 1/6. We can consider the number of 6's in 50 spins to be a binomial random variable. Then, let X to be the number of trials we get a 6 out of 50 trials. Then, we have the following model.

$P(X=k) = \binom{50}{k}(\frac{1}{6})^k(\frac{5}{6})^{50-k}$

We will estimate the number of times that she spins a 6 as the expected value of this random variable.

Recall that if we have X as a binomial random variable of n trials with a probability of success of p, then it's expected value is np.

Then , in this case, with n=50 and p=1/6 we expect to have $\frac{50}{6}$ number of times of having a 6, which is 8.33.

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Amanda [17]

It should be 00.0076

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3 years ago