While working on the project, Martha is most likely to be bored and less creative than usual.
Specialisation is an economic theory that suggests a person carries out activities for which one has a comparative advantage in or is most efficient in. For example, Martha is skilled in web design, economic theory would suggest that she specialises in Web design.
<u><em>Advantages of specialisation </em></u>
- The worker that carries out the same job function repeatedly becomes extremely skilled in the activity.
- Work is carried out faster.
<u><em>Disadvantages of specialisation </em></u>
- Work can become monotonous
- Employees skills in other job functions declines.
If a person carries out the same rudimentary task repeatedly, it is likely that the individual would become bored. For example, if an engineer is employed to put marbles in a box. Soon he would become bored because the work he is doing is not mentally stimulating.
A similar question was answered here: brainly.com/question/14898213?referrer=searchResults
The way each instrument be changed if the fed wished to decrease the money supply is the Fed should conduct :
- Open market sales
- Raise discount rates
- Raise interest paid on reserves.
This will attract more saving from the people.
Answer:
Amount borrow P = $15,026.296
Explanation:
Given:
Amount pay A = $20,000
Number of year n = 3
Rate r = 10% = 0.10
Find:
Amount borrow P
Computation:
A = P[1+r]ⁿ
20,000 = P[1+r]³
20,000 = P[1+0.10]³
20,000 = P[1.10]³
20,000 = P[1.331]
Amount borrow P = $15,026.296
Answer:
b. $12.67
Explanation:
The value of the company is the present value of its future dividends payments discounted at the company's cost of equity.
Year 1 dividend=current year dividend*(1+12%)
Year 1 dividend=$60m*(1+12%)=$67.20m
Year 2 dividend=$67.20m*(1+12%)=$75.26m
Year 3 dividend=$75.26m*(1+12%)=$ 84.30m
Year 4 dividend=$ 84.30m*(1+12%)=$ 94.41m
Year 5 dividend=$ 94.41m*(1+12%)=$105.74m
the terminal value of dividends=Year 5 dividend*(1+terminal growth rate)/(cost of equity)
the terminal value of dividends=$105.74m*(1+8%)/(16%-8%)=$1427.49m
value of the company=$67.20/(1+16%)^1+$75.26/(1+16%)^2+$ 84.30/(1+12%)^3+$ 94.41/(1+16%)^4+$105.74/(1+16%)^5+$1427.49/(1+16%)^5
value of the company=$956.00 m
value of one share=$956.00 m/75m=$12.75(the correct option is $12.67 the difference is due to rounding error)