Hi
The term lack of genetic diversity for a particular population refers to the fact that there are less number of alleles and less range of phenotypes and traits like (height, skin, color, ability to cope disease, ability to change metabolism as per requirement etc).
If we talk about endangered species, they are the specie which are prone to be extinct in near future because their population is very less in number. There can be multiple reason of becoming endangered for a population such as over hunting etc.
So when we say that an endangered population is genetically less diverse, it means that there are further difficulties that hinder their recovery.
For example: If a calamity stucks, all organisms that are already low in number and also genetically less diverse, so they cannot cope with calamity and get extinct. However, if this population is genetically more diverse, some organisms may survive some may die, and those which survive can recover the population. That is why it becomes more difficult to recover an endangered specie if it is genetically less diverse. The more the genetic diversity, better it is for specie.
Hope it help!
Answer: Mendel would have concluded that one pair of factors (genes) is responsible for two different characters in plants.
Explanation:
The 9:3:3:1 ratio observed by Mendel helped him to form his <em>Law of Independent Assortment </em>which states that the inheritance of one pair of factors (genes) is independent of the inheritance of the other pair.
Also from his previous studies, he obtained a 3:1 ratio for a single gene expression, flower color, which enabled to form <em> the Law of Segregation</em>, which states individuals possess two alleles and a parent passes only one allele to his/her offspring.
However, if he had observed a 3:1 ratio for two traits, he would have concluded that inheritance of characters occurs in pairs i.e., that a pair of alleles is responsible for two different characters in plants.
Answer:
The amount of caffeine that would be consumed if one eats the entire king-size bar will be 11.99 mg
Explanation:
This question can be reframed in the manner below for better understanding.
If 1.5 oz or ounce of a chocolate bar contains 6 mg of caffeine, how many milligrams (mg) of caffeine is contained in 85 grams of the same chocolate bar.
Firstly, the ounce should be converted to grams
If 1 ounce = 28.35g
1.5 ounce = ?
= 1.5 × 28.35/1
=42.53g
Hence, 42.53g of the chocolate bar contains 6 mg of caffeine
85g of the chocolate will contain
42.53g = 6mg
85g = X
where X is the amount of caffeine that will be consumed in mg
X = 85 × 6/42.53
X = 11.99 mg
The amount of caffeine that would be consumed if one eats the entire king-size bar will be 11.99 mg
Herbivores are consumers :)
