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SashulF [63]
3 years ago
6

You’re a career counselor for Tim, an air conditioner unit installer who is depressed because he sees his career as going nowher

e. He never really set any goals for himself and is distressed because he sees his friends going on to do more interesting and better-compensated jobs. In a short 2-page essay, detail what advice you might give Tim, decide whether a career plan would help Tim, and discuss whether or not you think Tim’s situation is typical for many employees.
Business
1 answer:
jeka943 years ago
8 0
<span>The goal here is to give someone advice on their career options. You should find someone you are close to and think of them and then imagine how you would converse about this with them. In the conversation, fin out what Tim's goals are as well as what things he has tried in the past. Find out what he believes he is capable of doing and how he feels about going to school to learn a new trade.</span>
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According to a 2018 article in Esquire magazine, approximately 70% of males over age will develop cancerous cells in their prost
yaroslaw [1]

Answer:

a) Probability of prostrate cancer given a positive test is P(C|+) = 0.0213

b) Probability of cancer given a negative test is P(C|-) = 0.0161

c) Probability of prostrate cancer given a positive test is P(C|+) = 0.3137

d) Probability of cancer given a negative test is P(C|-) = 0.2553

Explanation:

Probability male patient has prostate cancer, P(C) = 0.02

Probability male patient does not have prostrate cancer P(C') = 1 - 0.02 = 0.98

Probability of a positive test given there is no cancer, i.e. P(false positive) = P(+|C') = 0.75

P(negative test given there is cancer) = P(false negative) = P(-|C) = 0.2

P(negative test given there is no cancer) is the complement of P(+|C') = P(-|C') = 1 - 0.75 = 0.25

Probability of positive test given there is prostrate cancer, P(+|C) is the complement of P(-|C), = 1 - 0.2 = 0.8.

a) Probability of prostrate cancer given a positive test is P(C|+)

According to Baye's theorem, P(C|+) = P(+|C)P(C)/P(+)

For P(+), we use the Law Of Total Probability: P(+) = P(+|C)P(C) + P(+|C')P(C')

P(+) = (0.8 * 0.02) + (0.75 * 0.98) = 0.751

Therefore, P(C|+) = P(+|C)P(C)/P(+)

P(C|+) = (0.8 * 0.02)/0.751 = 0.0213

b) Probability of cancer given a negative test is P(C|-)

According to Baye's theorem, P(C|-) = P(-|C)P(C)/P(-)

P(-) = P(-|C)P(C) + P(-|C')P(C')

P(-) = (0.2 * 0.02) + (0.25 * 0.98) = 0.249

Therefore, P(C|-) = (0.2 * 0.02)/0.249

P(C|-) = 0.0161

Part 2: Given the following;

Probability male patient has prostate cancer, P(C) = 0.3

Probability male patient does not have prostrate cancer P(C') = 1 - 0.3 = 0.70

Probability of a positive test given there is no cancer, i.e. P(false positive) = P(+|C') = = 0.75

P(negative test given there is cancer) = P(false negative) = P(-|C) = 0.2

P(negative test given there is no cancer) is the complement of P(+|C') = P(-|C') = 1 - 0.75 = 0.25

Probability of positive test given there is prostrate cancer, P(+|C) is the complement of P(-|C), = 1 - 0.2 = 0.8.

c) Probability of prostrate cancer given a positive test is P(C|+)

According to Baye's theorem, P(C|+) = P(+|C)P(C)/P(+)

For P(+), we use the Law Of Total Probability: P(+) = P(+|C)P(C) + P(+|C')P(C')

P(+) = (0.8 * 0.3) + (0.75 * 0.7) = 0.751

Therefore, P(C|+) = P(+|C)P(C)/P(+)

P(C|+) = (0.8 * 0.3)/0.765 = 0.3137

d) Probability of cancer given a negative test is P(C|-)

According to Baye's theorem, P(C|-) = P(-|C)P(C)/P(-)

P(-) = P(-|C)P(C) + P(-|C')P(C')

P(-) = (0.2 * 0.3) + (0.25 * 0.7) = 0.235

Therefore, P(C|-) = (0.2 * 0.3)/0.235

P(C|-) = 0.2553

4 0
4 years ago
Determine the combined present value as of December 31, 2021, of the following four payments to be received at the end of each o
Alenkasestr [34]

Answer:

The question is incomplete, see the complete question below:

Determine the combined present value as of December 31, 2021, of the following four payments to be received at the end of each of the designated years, assuming an annual interest rate of 8%. (FV of $1, PV of $1, FVA of $1, PVA of $1, FVAD of $1 and PVAD of $1). Find N as well.

Payment   Year Received

          $

       9,000  2022

9,600  2023

11,200  2025

13,400  2027

Combined present value                        33,313.9

Explanation:

Present Value:The worth today of a sum receivable or payable in the future is called Present Value. It is premised on the concept of time value of money- that $1 today is worth more than $1 tomorrow. Why?

Because of the opportunity to invest; if invested, the $1 of today would earn interest so making it worth more than $1 dollar on the maturity day.

To calculate the present value of a future cash flow, we simply adiscount it using an appropriate discount rate which is the required rate of return. The discount rate is 8% in this question.

We can quickly calculate the Present Value (PV) using this formula:

PV = FV × (1+r)^(-n)

where FV - Future value, r- interest rate- 8%, n- number of years.

We can now apply these concepts to this question:

Year                                                        Present Value

2022  9000  × (1.08)^(-1)                        8,333.3

2023   9,600  ×  (1.08)^(-2)                      8230.5

2025   11,300  ×  (1.08)^(-4)                      8305.8

2027    13,400 ×   (1.08)^(-6)                  <u>   8,444.3</u>

Combined present value                        <u>33,313.9</u>

6 0
4 years ago
3
Orlov [11]

Answer:

C. Planning, directing, and controlling; these are functions of a manager.

5 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Perpetuities are also called annuities with an extended or unlimited life. Based on your understanding of perpetuities, answer t
Ad libitum [116K]

Answer:

The current value of a perpetuity is based more on the discounted value of its nearer (in time) cash flows and less by the discounted value of its more distant (in the future) cash flows.

Explanation:

The perpetuities can becalculate as follow

C/rate = Perpetuities

the reasoning behind this formula:

C * \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\

If we calculate limit whe ntime is infite,

because at more time 1 + r gets closer and closer to 0

we get on the dividend

1 - 0

So we have C x 1/i = C/i

Next part would be why the first cash flow is more relevant than the subsequent cash flow:

\frac{Principal}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV

Here if time increases, then the divisor get closer to ∞ so we have

P ( a constant) /∞ = 0

So the first cashflow is more relevant than the more distant cash flow

8 0
3 years ago
Intertech corporation recorded pretax restructuring charges of $1033.5 million in 2017. The charges consisted of asset write-dow
frutty [35]

Answer:

D) $244.5 million

Explanation:

To calculate the amount of money associated at the end of the year with this restructuring charges we can add the following costs:

= employee severance costs + costs associated with exit activities - cash paid during 2017

= $252.5 million + $99 million - $108 million = $244.5 million

6 0
4 years ago
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