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Flauer [41]
3 years ago
11

The minute hand of a clock is 7 in. Long how far does the point of the hand travel in 60 minutes?

Mathematics
1 answer:
Semmy [17]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

60 minutes is one hour, which is all the way around the outside of the clock one time.  This distance is represented by the circumference of a circle, assuming that the clock is in fact circular.  The formula for the circumference of a circle in terms of the radius is

C=2\pi r

Our radius is 7, so the distance around the outside of that particular clock (and how far the minute hand travels if it goes around the clock one time) is

C=2\pi (7) or

C = 14π

If you want the decimal equivalency for that, multiply in pi as 3.1415 and round to whatever place you need.  In decimal form, that is

C = 43.9 inches

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charle [14.2K]

Answer:

35d+ 32 > 25d+68

Step-by-step explanation:

Plan A: $35 a day plus a fee of $32

35d+ 32

Plan B: $25 a day plus a fee of $68

25d+68

We want to know when A costs more than B

35d+ 32 > 25d+68

6 0
3 years ago
Which rule describes a translation that is 3 units to the right and 5 units down?
Hunter-Best [27]
For this translation, you need to replace every occurrence of "x" with "x-3", and every occurrence of "y" with "y+5".
7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
In ΔABC, which trigonometric ratio equals 32?
Nezavi [6.7K]
The given answer should be "3/2", its because "32" is not possible in anyway.. 

tan C = sin C / cos C

Where sin C = 3 / 3.61

And

cos C = 2 / 3.61

Now

tan C = (3 / 3.61) / (2 / 3.61) = (3 / 3.61) x (3.61 / 2) = 3 / 2

<span>Thus tan C is the correct choice.   </span>

6 0
3 years ago
The number of girl child per family was recorded for 1000 families with 3 children. The data obtained was as follows: [2] Number
ira [324]

Answer:

a.\ Probability = 0.426

b.\ Probability = 0.574

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

Total\ Families = 1000

Number of Girls :      0 ---->  1 -----> 2   ------->3

Number of Families: 112 -> 314 --> 382 ---> 192

Solving (a): At most one girl

From the table, the number of families with at most one girl is: 112 + 314

i.e.

Number of Girls :      0 ---->  1

Number of Families: 112 -> 314

So, we have:

At\ Most\ One\ Girl = 112 + 314

At\ Most\ One\ Girl = 426

The probability is then calculated as:

Probability = \frac{At\ Most\ One\ Girl}{Total}

Probability = \frac{426}{1000}

Probability = 0.426

Solving (b): More girls

From the table, the number of families with more girl is: 382 + 192

i.e.

Number of Girls :      -----> 2   ------->3

Number of Families: --> 382 ---> 192

So, we have:

More\ Girls = 382 + 192

More\ Girls = 574

The probability is then calculated as:

Probability = \frac{More\ Girls}{Total}

Probability = \frac{574}{1000}

Probability = 0.574

4 0
2 years ago
Can someome plz help me
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You would start with 11.93 times .75, which would round to 8.95. Add that to 11.93 times 2, your answer would be 32.81
7 0
3 years ago
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