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777dan777 [17]
3 years ago
7

PLEASE HELP ASAP SLOPES OF PARALLEL AND PERPENDICULAR LINES

Mathematics
2 answers:
Rainbow [258]3 years ago
6 0

The slopes of parallel lines are the same just the y-intercepts are different.

The slopes of perpendicular lines are negative reciprocals of each other.

1. -15y = -5x + 30

y = 1/3x + 2

The slope is 1/3. So, A.

2. y = 2/3x - 5

The slope is 2/3

3. x = 2 is a vertical line at x of 2

y = -5 is a horizontal line at y of -5

The two lines are perpendicular to each other. So, B.

4. y = -5/2x +6

The slope of the perpendicular line is 2/5. So, C.

5. y = -3x + 4

The slope of the perpendicular line is 1/3.

Hope this helps! Mark as Brainliest please! :)))

Kamila [148]3 years ago
3 0

1) Parallel lines have equal slopes.

We need to find the slope of the given line by solving for y.

5x - 15y = 30

-15y = -5x + 30

y = (1/3)x - 2

The slope of the given line is 1/3, so the slope of the parallel line is also 1/3.

2) Line 1 has slope 2/3.

Line 2 has slope 2/3.

3) Line 1 is a vertical line through x = 2. Line 2 is a horizontal line through y = -5. The lines are perpendicular.

4) The given line can is solved for y, so we can see its slope is -5/2. The slopes of perpendicular lines are negative reciprocals. The perpendicular line has slope 2/5. We have point (5, 0) which is (x1, y1) in the slope-point formula.

y - 0 = (2/5)(x - 5)

y = 2/5 x - 2

5) The given equation has slope -3. To find the negative reciprocal, write the slope as a fraction, flip it, and change the sign.

Slope of perpendicular line is 1/3.

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Hi and hopes this helps:

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3 years ago
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a high school play costs an up front $3000 to produce plus an additional cost of each performance. Every sold-out performance of
vodomira [7]
So based on the information here, it costs $3,000 up front but an additional $1,000 for each play and each sold out performance brings in $2,500

For the sake of simplicity, when solving it, I won't be putting the dollar sign

So the equation is the following:

3,000+1,000x=2,500x 

So you need to get "x" by itself

First, minus 1,000x from each side

So it is now 3,000=1,500x

Now you divide 3,000 by 1,500 which is 2

x=2

So that means two performances need to sell out in order to break even with the cost

-------------------

To check:

$3,000+$1,000(2)=$2,500(2)

$1,000×2=$2,000 and $3,000+$2,000=$5,000

$5,000=$2,5000(2)

$2,500×2=$5,000

$5,000=$5,000

So it it correct





5 0
3 years ago
3. A team of eye surgeons has developed a new technique for a risky eye operation to restore the
Zigmanuir [339]

Answer:

Yes the new method if sample size was less than 20 than that of old method or identical sample numbers of old and new the differences still prove the new operation is better. As 88 patients minus 1% still shows us 76.7475 significance of  old method being low point 67.5 = 30% of 225 and proved a 65.25 low point and 69.75 high point which is also a 20% jump to new methods low point significance.

You cna show this as workings to prove or follow any of the below statements.

Where new method of 88 patients -0.01 significance rate stands at 76.7475. This figure has reduced by 11.2525 from 88 patients to 76.7 we compare this to the old method if reversing significance we find  = 62.5 and it's 30% standing value of 67.5  as +1% increase shows us 31% = 69.7  ( 0.31 x 225 = 69.74)

Step-by-step explanation:

88/225  = 0.39111111111 = 39.11%%

P value 01 = 1%  =  225.225 or 5% range of alternative hypotheses.

To graph the P value we take the distance between the sample mean and the null hypothesis value (225 + 1% of sample - x nhv) = y ). We can graph the probability of obtaining a sample mean  (225 +/- ( x +1% of sample) where nhv has a decimal if needed to utilize the 1% added). we would replace nvp in this example with  Ha or H1 which means the alternative hypotheses as the data shows less than or equal to.

We can then show 225.225 -  Ha or H1  then graph the probability of obtaining a sample mean that is at least extreme in both tails  Ha or H1

However it would be the other way round where you take the first set of data and use the sample as the 30% significance of that sample indicates it may be a larger sample or a higher significance. Therefore this would be used in the graphing - 1%

We prove that 30-1 =29  where 29% of 225 = 225 x 0.29 = 65.25

this way we have proved that the new set of data being equal to 88 patients regaining their eyesight is <23 and can be written like this 65.25< x <88

This means that sample mean has taken the 1% to show on the graph we can show 225> 33.11 +1 .

We can prove that both indifference of significance would reduce when 1% is added and close based on being a higher percentage to begin with.

34.11 = 0.3411 x 225 = 76.7475 for second surgeon = 33.11% +1

Where as shown

30 = 0.3 x 225 = 67.5

76.5475 - 67.5 = 9.04 difference when comparing old method = +1%

where new method stands at 76.7475 has reduced by 11.2525 from 88 patients and where old method if reversing = 62.5 and has reduced from 67.5  as +1% and 31% = 69.7  ( 0.31 x 225 = 69.74)

You would therefore graph each higher methods first if comparing both by 0.01 or show 88 on graph and 76.7475 = +1%

NB/ if sample size was 20 more in the old data then 225+20 = 245 x 0.29 = 71.05 and would still be lower than new data. = 2.0 increase level of significance and not relevant unless you are looking for the decrease which means new is greater than 20% success than that of old method findings where 30% = 67.5.

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Sladkaya [172]

D:

The orthocenter will be inside, on, or outside the scalene triangle, depending on whether it is acute, right, or obtuse, respectively. The number of congruent sides does not affect the location of the orthocenter.

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Answer:

9 per game.

Step-by-step explanation:

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I'm not so sure what the equation would look like

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