A. we use the z statistic to solve this problem
z = (x – u) / s
We calculate the value of the sample mean u and standard deviation
s:
u = $30 * 304 = $9120
s = $21 * 304 = $6384
z = (9,600 – 9120) / 6384
z = 0.075
From the normal tables using right tailed test,
P = 0.47
B. At worst 11% means P = 0.11, so the z value at this is
z = -1.23
-1.23 = (x – 9120) / 6384
x = 1267.68
Answer:
∠1 ≅ ∠2 ⇒ proved down
Step-by-step explanation:
#12
In the given figure
∵ LJ // WK
∵ LP is a transversal
∵ ∠1 and ∠KWP are corresponding angles
∵ The corresponding angles are equal in measures
∴ m∠1 = m∠KWP
∴ ∠1 ≅ ∠KWP ⇒ (1)
∵ WK // AP
∵ WP is a transversal
∵ ∠KWP and ∠WPA are interior alternate angles
∵ The interior alternate angles are equal in measures
∴ m∠KWP = m∠WPA
∴ ∠KWP ≅ ∠WPA ⇒ (2)
→ From (1) and (2)
∵ ∠1 and ∠WPA are congruent to ∠KWP
∴ ∠1 and ∠WPA are congruent
∴ ∠1 ≅ ∠WPA ⇒ (3)
∵ WP // AG
∵ AP is a transversal
∵ ∠WPA and ∠2 are interior alternate angles
∵ The interior alternate angles are equal in measures
∴ m∠WPA = m∠2
∴ ∠WPA ≅ ∠2 ⇒ (4)
→ From (3) and (4)
∵ ∠1 and ∠2 are congruent to ∠WPA
∴ ∠1 and ∠2 are congruent
∴ ∠1 ≅ ∠2 ⇒ proved
Answer:
it is 2/1
Step-by-step explanation:
Given;
40 fluid ounces of iced tea.
We know,
1 cup = 8 fluid ounce
1 pint = 2 cup
Now,
8 fluid ounce = 1 cup
1 fluid ounce = 1 / 8 cup
40 fluid ounce = (1 / 8) * 40 cup
So, 40 fluid ounce = 5 cup
Now,
We, used 3 cups of iced tea. So, we only have 2 cups of iced tea left.
We have,
2 cups = 1 pint
So, 1 pint of iced tea is left!
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
C
