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frosja888 [35]
3 years ago
10

Consider the following set of equations, where s, s0, x and r have units of length, t has units of time, v has units of velocity

, g and a have units of acceleration, and k is dimensionless. Which one is dimensionally incorrect?
2. v2 = 2 a s + (ksv)/t
3. s = s0 + v t + v^2/a
4. a = g + (k v/t)+ (v2 / s0)
5. t = k (sqrt s/g) + a/v
Mathematics
1 answer:
Anna11 [10]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

5

Step-by-step explanation:

For an equation to be dimensionally correct the dimension of quantities on both sides of equation must be same.

Also, two physically quantities can only be added or subtracted only when their dimension are same.

here all option are dimensionally correct except the 5th option where

dimension of t= [T] whereas dimension of a/v is \frac{LT^{-2}}{LT^{-1}}

= T^{-1}

since, the dimension of quantities on either sides of equation are not the same the equation is dimensionally is incorrect.

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Find the 8th term of 27,36,48
Sonbull [250]

Step-by-step explanation:

the sequence is a geometric sequence

simply use the formula:

t(n) = a * (r)^n-1

where n = 8, a = 27, r = 4/3

4 0
3 years ago
(1/1+sintheta)=sec^2theta-secthetatantheta pls help me verify this
Xelga [282]

Answer:

See Below.

Step-by-step explanation:

We want to verify the equation:

\displaystyle \frac{1}{1+\sin\theta} = \sec^2\theta - \sec\theta \tan\theta

To start, we can multiply the fraction by (1 - sin(θ)). This yields:

\displaystyle \frac{1}{1+\sin\theta}\left(\frac{1-\sin\theta}{1-\sin\theta}\right) = \sec^2\theta - \sec\theta \tan\theta

Simplify. The denominator uses the difference of two squares pattern:

\displaystyle \frac{1-\sin\theta}{\underbrace{1-\sin^2\theta}_{(a+b)(a-b)=a^2-b^2}} = \sec^2\theta - \sec\theta \tan\theta

Recall that sin²(θ) + cos²(θ) = 1. Hence, cos²(θ) = 1 - sin²(θ). Substitute:

\displaystyle \displaystyle \frac{1-\sin\theta}{\cos^2\theta} = \sec^2\theta - \sec\theta \tan\theta

Split into two separate fractions:

\displaystyle \frac{1}{\cos^2\theta} -\frac{\sin\theta}{\cos^2\theta} = \sec^2\theta - \sec\theta\tan\theta

Rewrite the two fractions:

\displaystyle \left(\frac{1}{\cos\theta}\right)^2-\frac{\sin\theta}{\cos\theta}\cdot \frac{1}{\cos\theta}=\sec^2\theta - \sec\theta \tan\theta

By definition, 1 / cos(θ) = sec(θ) and sin(θ)/cos(θ) = tan(θ). Hence:

\displaystyle \sec^2\theta - \sec\theta\tan\theta \stackrel{\checkmark}{=}  \sec^2\theta - \sec\theta\tan\theta

Hence verified.

8 0
3 years ago
Marvin invested 65% of his retirement account in stocks and 35% in gold. Marvin believes that the return to stocks over the next
ser-zykov [4K]

Answer:

1)

the mean rate of return is 17 %

the standard deviation of return is 17.06055

2)

the probability that Marvin's portfolio will make at least 20% over the next 12 months is 0.4325

Step-by-step explanation:

Given the data in the question;

1)

For the portfolio, the mean return and standard deviation are computed as follows;

Mean = Return = 0.65 × 10 + 0.35 × 30

= 6.5 + 10.5

= 17 %

Therefore, the mean rate of return is 17 %

Standard deviation will be;

σp = √( 0.65² × 15² + 0.35² × 40² )

= √( 0.4225 × 225 + 0.1225 × 1600 )

= √( 95.0625 + 196 )  

= √291.0625

= 17.06055  

Therefore, the standard deviation of return is 17.06055

2)  

probability that Marvin's portfolio will make at least 20% over the next 12 months.

P( X > 20 )

we convert to a standard normal variable;

Z = \frac{20-17}{17.06055} )

Z = 0.17

from z table, p-value is;

p( X < 20 ) = 0.5675

P( X > 20 ) 1 - 0.5675  = 0.4325

Therefore, the probability that Marvin's portfolio will make at least 20% over the next 12 months is 0.4325

5 0
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olga55 [171]

Answer:

352

Step-by-step explanation:

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3 0
3 years ago
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faltersainse [42]

Answer:

there could be more than one answer...

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
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