Answer:
Correct choices are A and C
Step-by-step explanation:
Inscribed angles property: The inscribed angles subtended by the same arc are equal.
1. Angles EFH and EGH are both inscribed angles subtended by the arc EH. Therefore, these angles are congruent (option A is true).
2. Angles GHF and GEF are both inscribed angles subtended by the arc GF. Therefore, these angles are congruent (option C is true).
3. Angles EGH and FHG are interior angles of the triangle KGH and can be congruent (if triangle is isosceles) or can be not congruent (in general). Thus, option B is false.
4. Angles EFH and FHG in general are not congruent. They can be congruent only when arcs EH and FG have the same measure. In general, option D is false.
Answer: x = 0
y = 2
z = -1
Step-by-step explanation:
The system of equations are
x+y+z=1 - - - - - - - - - - 1
-2x+4y+6z=2 - - - - - - - - - 2
-x+3y-5z=11 - - - - - - - - - 3
Step 1
We would eliminate x by adding equation 1 to equation 3. It becomes
4y -4z = 12 - - - - - - - - - 4
Step 2
We would multiply equation 1 by 2. It becomes
2x + 2y + 2z = 2 - - - - - - - - - 5
We would add equation 2 and equation 5. It becomes
6y + 8z = 4 - - - - - - - - - 6
Step 3
We would multiply equation 4 by 6 and equation 6 by 4. It becomes
24y - 24z = 72 - - - - - - - - 7
24y + 32z = 16 - - - - - - - - 8
We would subtract equation 8 from equation 7. It becomes
-56z = 56
z = -56/56 = -1
Substituting z = -1 into 7, it becomes
24y - 24×-1 = 72
24y + 24 = 72
24y = 72 - 24 = 48
y = 48/24 = 2
Substituting y = 2 and z = -1 into equation 1, it becomes
x + 2 - 1 = 1
x = 1 - 1 = 0
There should be 45 players that have played before
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
Given that a bag contains 40 cards numbered 1 through 40 that are either red or blue. A card is drawn at random and placed back in the bag.
This is done four times. Two red cards are drawn, numbered 31 and 19, and two blue cards are drawn, numbered 22 and 7.
From the above we cannot conclude that red cards and even numbers are mutually exclusive
Just drawing two red cards and because the two happen to be odd we cannot generalize the red cards have odd numbers.
This might have occurred due to simple chance from a comparatively large number of 40 cards.
Suppose say we have red cards 20, and 19 red 1 blue.
Then drawing 2 from 19 red cards have more probability and this can occur by chance.
So friend's conclusion is wrong.
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
