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Elina [12.6K]
3 years ago
10

The management of Ro Corporation is investigating automating a process. Old equipment, with a current salvage value of $24,000,

would be replaced by a new machine. The new machine would be purchased for $468,000 and would have a 6 year useful life and no salvage value. By automating the process, the company would save $161,000 per year in cash operating costs. The simple rate of return on the investment is closest to (Ignore income taxes.):
Business
1 answer:
Margaret [11]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

36.26%

Explanation:

Simple rate of return:

return/investment

<u>return:</u>

In this case, it will be the cost saving for the new machine: 161,000

<u>investment</u>

We will decrease the investment by the recovery from the old machine.

468,000 new machine - 24,000 salvage value of new   = 444,000

<u>Then, proceed to calculate:</u>

161,000/444,000 = 0.3612 = 36.26%

Consideration:

Is important to state that this rate, do not consider the time value of money, neither the cash flow of the project.

You might be interested in
Difference between bookkeeping and accounting in table​
Sladkaya [172]

Answer:

Bookkeeping is related to the recording measuring, and finding the financial data of a company and Accounting is the process where in the company's financial data is summarized, and a report is prepared for the same.

Explanation:

hope this will help you

3 0
3 years ago
Jean Claude has just completed a new line of designer handbags. He wants the price to communicate to the customer that the handb
Leno4ka [110]

Answer:

The answer is B. Price Skimming

Explanation:

In marketing, price skimming is a situation in which a high price is initially charged for a product and lowers it later after achieving its aim.

This type of product can be a luxury good in which high price is deemed as of high quality. The main aim is to gather enough revenue from the premium buyers and lowers it later to attract other customers

.

Price Skimming is usually set for products that have short life-cycle

7 0
3 years ago
The value of what you owe minus what you owe is called
aliina [53]
Hey there!

I think you meant to type "value of what you <em>own</em> minus what you owe". Let me know if this assumption isn't correct, though I don't know what the value of what you owe is besides... ya know, what you owe. 

The value of what you own is called you assets. This can include anything of value that you own, particularly your pricier possessions. Think of a vintage family heirloom or a highly–priced article of clothing. Assets, though, includes the value <em>everything</em> that you own that you could possibly put a price tag on if you were certain someone would buy it. 

What you owe is called your liability. This is basically any debt that you owe anyone, whether it be your buddy who footed your lunch bill the other day when you didn't have enough cash or a student loan you used to pay for college. 

Your assets minus your liability is called your net worth. This is basically what you are worth in total. This makes sense, since any debt you owe will be taken out of the amount that you are worth or any money that you have.

Net worth will be your answer. 

Hope this helped you out! :-)
4 0
3 years ago
Scott is a 15-year-old student who works at a part-time job and gets paid every two weeks. His paycheck goes directly to his pre
malfutka [58]

Scott was denied the loan because he was not old enough to qualify.

<h3>What is the Payday loan?</h3>

Payday loan is a type of unsecured loan in which high rate of the interest is given to the borrower. It is a kind of the short term loan basically for the two weeks.

According to the above situation, Scott is cannot get the payback loan because he is  minor to sanction a loan. He must have the age of 18 years or above.

Learn more about payday loan here:

brainly.com/question/3949419

#SPJ1

4 0
2 years ago
The borrower in a $238,000 loan makes interest payments at the end of each six months for eight years. These are computed using
yanalaym [24]

Answer:

D = 7980.55

Explanation:

Since the borrower pays in 6 months wich is half a year, we calculate the semi-annual rate = \frac{Annual rate of intrest}{Number of months}

= \frac{0.042}{12}

= 0.0035 = 0.35%

The effective semi-annual rate is, [(0.0035)⁶- 1] = 0.02118461

\frac{D[(1.02118461)^{16}  - 1]}{1.02118461) - 1} + \frac{D[(1.02118461)^{10}  - 1]}{1.02118461) - 1} = 238000

\frac{D(1.398518 - 1)}{0.02118461} + \frac{D(1.233226 - 1)}{0.02118461} = 238000

0.631744D = 238000 * 0.02118461

0.631744D = 5041.937

Therefore D = 7980.55

7 0
3 years ago
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