Answer:
Yes, they are independent because P(Texas) ≈ 0.45 and P(Texas/brand A) ≈ 0.45.
Step-by-step explanation:
We are given that a taste test asks people from Texas and California which pasta they prefer, brand A or brand B. The table is given in the question.
A person is randomly selected from those tested.
And we have find that are being from Texas and preferring brand A independent events or not.
Firstly, we know that these two events will be independent when;
P(Texas) = P(Texas/brand A)
Now, P(Texas) =
=
≈ 0.45
Also, P(Texas/brand A) =
=
=
≈ 0.45
Therefore, being from Texas and preferring brand A are independent events because P(Texas) ≈ 0.45 and P(Texas/brand A) ≈ 0.45.
1 quarter, 2 dimes, 2 nickels, 10 pennies
It is not binomial random variable , since the number of red cards is unknown in the deck of cards in the starting of experiment.
As given in the question,
Number of cards are unknown.
Number of red cards are unknown in the starting of experiment.
Number of times process done =10
For binomial random variable number of red cards should be known.
Therefore, it is not binomial random variable , since the number of red cards is unknown in the deck of cards in the starting of experiment.
Learn more about binomial random variable here
brainly.com/question/14282621
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5 + 17a is the answer you are looking for
Dy/dx (2x⁵ y³ - 4y/x)
dy/dx (2y³ x⁵ - 4y/x)
dy/dx ( 2y³ x⁵ ) - dy/dx (4y/x)
= 2y³ 5x⁴ - (-4y × 1/x²)
=
10x⁶ y³ + 4y
-------------------
x²