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satela [25.4K]
3 years ago
5

9|4/3x-2| + 7 = 7 Please help!

Mathematics
1 answer:
Aleksandr [31]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

<h3>x = 3/2</h3>

Step-by-step explanation:

Given the expression

9|4/3x-2| + 7 = 7

First note that the value in parenthesis can both be negative and positive;

For the positive value, we have;

9(4/3x-2) + 7 = 7

9(4/3x-2) + 7 - 7 = 7 - 7

9(4/3x-2) = 0

Open the bracket

9(4/3x) - 9(2) = 0

36/3 x - 18 = 0

12x = 18

x = 18/12

x = 3/2

For the negative value;

9(-(4/3x-2)) + 7 = 7

9(-4/3x+2) + 7 - 7 = 7 - 7

9(-4/3x+2) = 0

Open the bracket

9(-4/3x) + 9(2) = 0

-36/3 x + 18 = 0

-12x = -18

x = 18/12

x = 3/2

Hence the value of x is 3/2

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Tamiku [17]
<h2>Age Problem</h2><h3>Answer:</h3>

Kassim is 15 years old this year.

<h3>Step-by-step explanation:</h3>

Let k be Kassim's age this year.

Kassim's age after 30 years is k +30. Also, 3 times the age of Kassim is 3k. We are told that after 30 years, Kassim's age will be 3 times as his age. So, k +30 = 3k.

Solving for k:

k +30 = 3k \\ k +30 -3k = 3k -3k \\ -2k +30 = 0 \\ -2k +30 -30 = -30 \\ -2k = -30 \\ \frac{-2k}{-2} = \frac{-30}{-2} \\ k = 15

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A research study uses 800 men under the age of 55. Suppose that 30% carry a marker on the male chromosome that indicates an incr
ss7ja [257]

Answer:

a) There is a 12.11% probability that exactly 1 man has the marker.

b) There is a 85.07% probability that more than 1 has the marker.

Step-by-step explanation:

There are only two possible outcomes: Either the men has the chromosome, or he hasn't. So we use the binomial probability distribution.

Binomial probability

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.\pi^{x}.(1-\pi)^{n-x}

In which C_{n,x} is the number of different combinatios of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

And \pi is the probability of X happening.

In this problem, we have that:

30% carry a marker on the male chromosome that indicates an increased risk for high blood pressure, so \pi = 0.30

(a) If 10 men are selected randomly and tested for the marker, what is the probability that exactly 1 man has the marker?

10 men, so n = 10

We want to find P(X = 1). So:

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.\pi^{x}.(1-\pi)^{n-x}

P(X = 1) = C_{10,1}.(0.30)^{1}.(0.7)^{9} = 0.1211

There is a 12.11% probability that exactly 1 man has the marker.

(b) If 10 men are selected randomly and tested for the marker, what is the probability that more than 1 has the marker?

That is P(X > 1)

We have that:

P(X \leq 1) + P(X > 1) = 1

P(X > 1) = 1 - P(X \leq 1)

We also have that:

P(X \leq 1) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1)

P(X = 0) = C_{10,0}.(0.30)^{0}.(0.7)^{10} = 0.0282

So

P(X \leq 1) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) = 0.0282 + 0.1211 = 0.1493

Finally

P(X > 1) = 1 - P(X \leq 1) = 1 - 0.1493 = 0.8507

There is a 85.07% probability that more than 1 has the marker.

3 0
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Select the correct answer from the drop-down menu.
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The diagram is missing and so i have attached it.

Answer:

Next step is;

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Step-by-step explanation:

A perpendicular line is to be drawn to line GH through point A.

The steps are;

1. Identification of the two end points of the line which has been done.

2. Place one leg of the compass at point G and draw a small arc above the line GH. This has been done.

3. Without changing the span of the compass, place the same leg of the compass at point H and draw another small arc above the line GH to intersect the previously drawn small arc.

4. Make use of a straight object to connect the point of intersection of the two small arcs to the point A.

This line is the perpendicular line to GH.

In the figure attached, they have just finished point 2 I wrote above. Thus, the next step is point 3.

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