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3 years ago

How many inches does the ramp rise for each inch of length? Round to the nearest hundredth.

Mathematics

1 answer:

laiz [17]3 years ago

7 0

Answer:

The answer is B)

Step-by-step explanation:

First, we look at what we know. There are two points on the graph that we know, (0, 0) and (15, 5). This can give us the slope of the line.

y2 - y1 / x2 - x1 | Plug in our coordinates

5 - 0 / 15 - 0 | 5 / 15 | 1/3. Our slope is 1/3. This means that for each inch of length, the ramp rises .33 inches.

You might be interested in

A candidate running for office is putting on a gala as a fundraiser, with hopes of raising more than $7,900 in political contrib

baherus [9]

The simplest interpretation would go a little something like this:

We know that we want the total donation amount to be more than $7,900, so we can set up this inequality to begin with

$D \ \textgreater \ 7,900$

Where D is the total donations raised (in dollars). How do we find D? Well, we just add up the total number of table reservations sold and the total number of single tickets sold. If we let r stand for the number of reservation tickets and s stand for the number of single tickets, then we have

$D=540r+34s$

So, the inequality representing this situation would be

$540r+34s\ \textgreater \ 7,900$

And that would probably be fine for this problem.

<span><em>Footnote:</em> </span>Of course, if this were a real-life scenario, we'd need to take some additional details into account: How many tables do we have? How many people can be seated at each table?

3 0

3 years ago

Suppose the function y = 30,000(1.06)x models the annual profit for a small business x years after 2000. Find the profit at the

goldfiish [28.3K]

From 2000 to 2011, there are 11 years. From the given function, we can calculate the profit for a small business at the end of 2011 by substituting 11 to the x of the given equation.
y = (30,000)(1.06)(11)
y = 349,800
Thus, the profit at the end of 2011 is approximately $349,800.

4 0

4 years ago

Could the inverse of a non-function be a function? Explain or give an example.

Kitty [74]

Answer:

The inverse of a non-function mapping is not necessarily a function.

For example, the inverse of the non-function mapping $\lbrace (0,\, 0),\, (0,\, 1),\, (1,\, 0),\, (1,\, 1) \rbrace\!$ is the same as itself (and thus isn't a function, either.)

Step-by-step explanation:

A mapping is a set of pairs of the form $(a,\, b)$ . The first entry of each pair is the value of the input. The second entry of the pair would be the value of the output.

A mapping is a function if and only if for each possible input value $x$ , at most one of the distinct pairs includes $x\!$ as the value of first entry.

For example, the mapping $\lbrace (0,\, 0),\, (1,\, 0) \rbrace$ is a function. However, the mapping $\lbrace (0,\, 0),\, (1,\, 0),\, (1,\, 1) \rbrace$ isn't a function since more than one of the distinct pairs in this mapping include $1$ as the value of the first entry.

The inverse of a mapping is obtained by interchanging the two entries of each of the pairs. For example, the inverse of the mapping $\lbrace (a_{1},\, b_{1}),\, (a_{2},\, b_{2})\rbrace$ is the mapping $\lbrace (b_{1},\, a_{1}),\, (b_{2},\, a_{2})\rbrace$ .

Consider mapping $\lbrace (0,\, 0),\, (0,\, 1),\, (1,\, 0),\, (1,\, 1) \rbrace\!$ . This mapping isn't a function since the input value $0$ is the first entry of more than one of the pairs.

Invert $\lbrace (0,\, 0),\, (0,\, 1),\, (1,\, 0),\, (1,\, 1) \rbrace\!$ as follows:

$(0,\, 0)$ becomes $(0,\, 0)$ .
$(0,\, 1)$ becomes $(1,\, 0)$ .
$(1,\, 0)$ becomes $(0,\, 1)$ .
$(1,\, 1)$ becomes $(1,\, 1)$ .

In other words, the inverse of the mapping $\lbrace (0,\, 0),\, (0,\, 1),\, (1,\, 0),\, (1,\, 1) \rbrace\!$ would be $\lbrace (0,\, 0),\, (1,\, 0),\, (0,\, 1),\, (1,\, 1) \rbrace\!$ , which is the same as the original mapping. (Mappings are sets. There is no order between entries within a mapping.)

Thus, $\lbrace (0,\, 0),\, (0,\, 1),\, (1,\, 0),\, (1,\, 1) \rbrace\!$ is an example of a non-function mapping that is still not a function.

More generally, the inverse of non-trivial ellipses (a class of continuous non-function $\mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}$ mappings, including circles) are also non-function mappings.

3 0

3 years ago

AABC is a translation of AABC. What is the length of AC'?

Zinaida [17]

B.) 6?....
This seems too easy for it to be correct but I think it is B.

8 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

1. Segment A'B' is parallel to segment AB. What is the length of segment BB'?

ella [17]

Answer:

A. 3.5

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that AB is parallel to A'B', therefore,

CB/CB' = CA/CA'

CB' = 7

CB = CB' + BB' = 7 + BB'

CA' = 6

CA = CA' + AA' = 6 + 3 = 9

Plug in the values

(7 + BB')/7 = 9/6

(7 + BB')/7 = 3/2

Cross multiply

2(7 + BB') = 7(3)

14 + 2BB' = 21

Subtract 14 from both sides

2BB' = 21 - 14

2BB' = 7

Divide both sides by 2

BB' = 7/2

BB' = 3.5

5 0

3 years ago