The answer is a. -24.8, -2.81, 1.13, -2.81, 24.1
This is because the larger a negative number is, the lower its value is. So, when putting numbers from least to greatest, you put the largest negative numbers first, and then work your way up to zero. Then, you start counting upwards with your positive numbers.
Answer:
first option 1/2
Step-by-step explanation:
2,3,5 are the prime numbers from that set
each individual number has a 1 in 6 chance of landing on it and we have 3 so...
3 of 6 possibilities would be prime numbers. Simplify to...
1 in 2
Answer:
a) (5×103)=5000
(9×107)=90000000
5000×90000000=450000000000
or 4.5×10 restipa 11
b)(7×105)=700000
(2×102)=200
70000÷200=3500
or 3.5×10 restipa 3
Answer: Rs 275.40
Step-by-step explanation:
Since Sunayana borrowed a sum of Rs 25000 at 12 %p.a simple interest for 1 years 6 months, the total amount that she's expected to pay will be calculated thus:
First, well calculate the interest. This will be:
= PRT/100
= (25000 × 12 × 1.5 / 100)
= 4500
Total amount to be paid back will be:
= Rs 25000 + Rs 4500
= Rs 29500
Since she lent the money to Bishwant, the total amount that Bishwant will pay will be:
A = P(1 + r)^t
where,
A = Final Amount
P= Principal = 25000
r= Rate of interest =
t= Time = 3 cycles
Since it's compounded half yearly, then 1½ywars will be = 1½ × 2 = 3 cycles
The rate will be = 12%/2 = 6% yearly.
We'll then slot the values into the question and this will be:
A = P(1 + r)^t
A = 25000(1 + 0.06)³
A = 25000(1.06)³
A = 25000 × 1.191016
A = 29775.4
Therefore, Bishwant is expected to pay Rs 29775.4
Then the profit that Sunayana is expected to make will be:
= Rs 29775.4 - Rs 29500
= Rs 275.40
It shows additive inverse of property
