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Shtirlitz [24]
3 years ago
7

A wheel has a radius of 9 inches and travels as it spins. How far does the wheel travel in one revolution? Show your work. Use 3

.14 for pi and round to the nearest inch
Mathematics
1 answer:
viktelen [127]3 years ago
4 0
Radius is half a circle. So 9•2 = diameter then it’s 18 • 3.14 = 56.52 rounded to the nearest inch is 57
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James invests $5,000 at an annual rate of 8% simple interest for 7 years. How much is in the account
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$8,569.12

Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago
Whats 12*5+55= <br><br> ill mark asa brainliest
Aleksandr-060686 [28]
First do PEMDAS
There's no parenthesis. So move on to exponent. There's also no exponents. Move on to  multiplication. There it is. 

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Can I get help with this math question plz thx
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Answer:

1/5.

Step-by-step explanation:

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Maddie climbed 48 mountain in 12 month. find her climbing rate in mountain per month<br>​
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4 0
3 years ago
Suppose <img src="https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=m" id="TexFormula1" title="m" alt="m" align="absmiddle" class="latex-formula"> men and
ollegr [7]

Firstly, we'll fix the postions where the n women will be. We have n! forms to do that. So, we'll obtain a row like:

\underbrace{\underline{~~~}}_{x_2}W_2 \underbrace{\underline{~~~}}_{x_3}W_3 \underbrace{\underline{~~~}}_{x_4}... \underbrace{\underline{~~~}}_{x_n}W_n \underbrace{\underline{~~~}}_{x_{n+1}}

The n+1 spaces represented by the underline positions will receive the men of the row. Then,

x_1+x_2+x_3+...+x_{n-1}+x_n+x_{n+1}=m~~~(i)

Since there is no women sitting together, we must write that x_2,x_3,...,x_{n-1},x_n\ge1. It guarantees that there is at least one man between two consecutive women. We'll do some substitutions:

\begin{cases}x_2=x_2'+1\\x_3=x_3'+1\\...\\x_{n-1}=x_{n-1}'+1\\x_n=x_n'+1\end{cases}

The equation (i) can be rewritten as:

x_1+x_2+x_3+...+x_{n-1}+x_n+x_{n+1}=m\\\\&#10;x_1+(x_2'+1)+(x_3'+1)+...+(x_{n-1}'+1)+x_n+x_{n+1}=m\\\\&#10;x_1+x_2'+x_3'+...+x_{n-1}'+x_n+x_{n+1}=m-(n-1)\\\\&#10;x_1+x_2'+x_3'+...+x_{n-1}'+x_n+x_{n+1}=m-n+1~~~(ii)

We obtained a linear problem of non-negative integer solutions in (ii). The number of solutions to this type of problem are known: \dfrac{[(n)+(m-n+1)]!}{(n)!(m-n+1)!}=\dfrac{(m+1)!}{n!(m-n+1)!}

[I can write the proof if you want]

Now, we just have to calculate the number of forms to permute the men that are dispposed in the row: m!

Multiplying all results:

n!\times\dfrac{(m+1)!}{n!(m-n+1)!}\times m!\\\\&#10;\boxed{\boxed{\dfrac{m!(m+1)!}{(m-n+1)!}}}

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3 years ago
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