You are dispatched to a residence for a 59-year-old male with an unknown emergency. when you arrive, you find the patient sitting on the couch. he is conscious, is noticeably diaphoretic, and complains of dizziness and weakness. during your assessment, you note a large, well-healed vertical scar in the center of his chest and a small bulge just under the skin in the upper left part of his chest. his blood pressure is 90/50 mm hg, pulse is 44 beats/min and weak, and respirations are 24 breaths/min and unlabored. what is the most likely cause of this patient's condition?
- Artificial pacemaker failure
Answer:
notify the students before hand.
Explanation:
<span>The correct answer here is A - in the situation listed above, the reason you would try to change or break your habits would be a concern for your risk factors. If you do not pass the machines selling pop, the temptation will not be there to consume a product that is bad for your health.</span>
Answer:
Naloxone.
Explanation:
Naloxone (Narcan), an opioid antagonist, is delivered for opioid overdose to treat respiratory depression, sedation and hypertension. Multivitamins and adequate nutrition for clients recovering from alcohol are important. Since malnutrition is widespread, some individuals may need another vitamin substitute. Upon detoxification thiamine (vitamin B1) is introduced, given to decrease ataxia and other deficiency symptoms. It is usually given four times daily orally, 100 mg, but can be administered intramuscularly or by intravenous glucose infusion. The folic acid deficiency is treated four times daily with oral administration of 1.0 mg.Magnesium deficiency is also observed in those with long-term alcohol dependence. Magnesium sulfate is given prophylactically to clients with history of withdrawal seizures, which improves the body's response to thiamine and decreases seizures)
