Why does it takes 3 copies of 1/6 to show the same amount as 1copy of 1 / 2
2 answers:
Because 1/2 ≠ 1/6.
We know that 1/6 < 1/2, so we can set up an equation to see how many copies are needed for them to be equal.
(1/6)x = 1/2
[(1/6)x] × 6 = [1/2] × 6
x = 6/2 = 3
This equation shows that 1/6 × 3 = 1/2, therefore we need 3 copies of 1/6 to equal 1 copy of 1/2.
Because 3 times 1/6 is 3/6 which can be simplified to 1/2
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Answer:
i thought i new that one but i dont sorry
Step-by-step explanation:
No of red marbles = 5
Total number of marbles =14
By using probability formula,
P(E)= Number of favorable outcome /
Total number of outcomes
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I hope that was useful ☻
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