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Brut [27]
3 years ago
12

Why does it takes 3 copies of 1/6 to show the same amount as 1copy of 1 / 2

Mathematics
2 answers:
Veseljchak [2.6K]3 years ago
3 0
Because 1/2 ≠ 1/6.

We know that 1/6 < 1/2, so we can set up an equation to see how many copies are needed for them to be equal.

(1/6)x = 1/2
[(1/6)x] × 6 = [1/2] × 6
x = 6/2 = 3

This equation shows that 1/6 × 3 = 1/2, therefore we need 3 copies of 1/6 to equal 1 copy of 1/2.
goldfiish [28.3K]3 years ago
3 0
Because 3 times 1/6 is 3/6 which can be simplified to 1/2
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Answer & Step-by-step explanation:

The Segment Addition Postulate states that AB + BC = AC when C is between A and B.

<h2>___________________________________________________</h2><h2><em>I AM ALWAYS HAPPY TO HELP :)</em></h2>
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3 years ago
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lys-0071 [83]

Answer:

ASA

ΔFGH ≅ ΔIHG ⇒ answer B

Step-by-step explanation:

* Lets revise the cases of congruence  

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- SAS ⇒ 2 sides and including angle in the 1st Δ ≅ 2 sides and  

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- ASA ⇒ 2 angles and the side whose joining them in the 1st Δ  

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- AAS ⇒ 2 angles and one side in the first triangle ≅ 2 angles  

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- HL ⇒ hypotenuse leg of the first right angle triangle ≅ hypotenuse

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* Lets prove the two triangles FGH and IHG are congruent by on of

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∵ FG // HI and GH is transversal

∴ m∠FGH = m∠IHG ⇒ alternate angles

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∵ m∠FHG = m∠IGH ⇒ given

∵ m∠FGH = m∠IHG ⇒ proved

∵ GH = HG ⇒ common side

∴ ΔFGH ≅ ΔIHG ⇒ ASA

* ASA

 ΔFGH ≅ ΔIHG

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