Answer:
Suppose we have a random number A.
The multiplicative inverse of A is a number X such that:
A*X = 1
When we work with real numbers, X = 1/A
Then:
A*(1/A) = A/A = 1
This means that (1/A) is the multiplicative inverse of A.
Where we need to have A ≠ 0, because we can not divide by 0.
Now we want to find the multiplicative inverse of the numbers:
2: Here the inverse is (1/2) = 0.5
1/5: Here the inverse is (1/(1/5)) = (5/1) = 5
-4: Herre the inverse is (1/(-4)) = -(1/4) = -0.25
The equation in y=mx+b form is 1/4x-9.
7/9. 1/9 plus 2/3. You have to get the lest common denominator, so change 3 to 9 by multiplying it by three. Remember, you have to do the same thing you do to the denominator to the numerator. So, 2/3 would be 6/9. 6/9 plus 1/9 is easy, basic facts. 1 and 6 is 7, and you put the nine under. You get 7/9
Answer:
25 ft
Step-by-step explanation:
You need to add 9+7+9.
There are two 9s and just one 7. 9+9 is 18 and 18+7 is 25
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
Since we have an amount in the future of 750, we are going to use Future value formula; FV = PV (1+r)^t
where PV= Initial amount deposited
r= interest rate or discount rate
t = total duration of the investment
FV= 750
PV=500
r = 2.5% or 0.025 as a decimal
t = ?
Next, plug in the numbers into the formula;
750 = 500* (1+0.025)^t
divide both sides by 500;
750/500 = 1.025^t
Introduce <em>ln</em> on both sides
ln 1.5 = ln 
ln 1.5 = t ln 1.025
0.4054651 = 0.0246926 t
Divide both sides by 0.0246926 to solve for t;
0.4054651/0.0246926 = t
t = 16.42
Therefore it will take 16.42 years
