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Delicious77 [7]
3 years ago
15

7 freshmen, 9 sophomores, 8 juniors, and 8 seniors are eligible to be on a committee.

Mathematics
1 answer:
Setler79 [48]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

i)32C16

ii)1185408

<em><u>Explanation</u></em><em><u>:</u></em>

i)Total number of selected/eligible is 7+9+8+8=32

Total ways of selecting dance committee of 16 is

<em><u>3</u></em><em><u>2</u></em><em><u>C</u></em><em><u>1</u></em><em><u>6</u></em>

ii)Total ways of selecting 3 seniors from 8 is 8C3

and Total ways of selecting 6 juniors from 8 is 8C6

ways of selecting 2 sopho from 9 is 9C2

ways of selecting 5 freshman from 7 is 7C5

now, total way of selection come to be

8C3×8C6×9C2×7C5

=56×28×36×21

=1185408

✌️

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Bess [88]
Yeah for this one you can simply subtract 8 from both sides, and then divide by 2 to find x!! for the advice portion, i would say make sure you’re not over-complicating things!!
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3 years ago
X² y² + y2 – 4x + 20y +55 =0<br> Center:<br> Radius:
netineya [11]

Answer:

ya

Step-by-step explanation:

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4 0
3 years ago
Show that if X is a geometric random variable with parameter p, then
Lubov Fominskaja [6]

Answer:

\sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \frac{p(1-p)^{k-1}}{k}=-\frac{p ln p}{1-p}

Step-by-step explanation:

The geometric distribution represents "the number of failures before you get a success in a series of Bernoulli trials. This discrete probability distribution is represented by the probability density function:"

P(X=x)=(1-p)^{x-1} p

Let X the random variable that measures the number os trials until the first success, we know that X follows this distribution:

X\sim Geo (1-p)

In order to find the expected value E(1/X) we need to find this sum:

E(X)=\sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \frac{p(1-p)^{k-1}}{k}

Lets consider the following series:

\sum_{k=1}^{\infty} b^{k-1}

And let's assume that this series is a power series with b a number between (0,1). If we apply integration of this series we have this:

\int_{0}^b \sum_{k=1}^{\infty} r^{k-1}=\sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \int_{0}^b r^{k-1} dt=\sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \frac{b^k}{k}   (a)

On the last step we assume that 0\leq r\leq b and \sum_{k=1}^{\infty} r^{k-1}=\frac{1}{1-r}, then the integral on the left part of equation (a) would be 1. And we have:

\int_{0}^b \frac{1}{1-r}dr=-ln(1-b)

And for the next step we have:

\sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \frac{b^{k-1}}{k}=\frac{1}{b}\sum_{k=1}^{\infty}\frac{b^k}{k}=-\frac{ln(1-b)}{b}

And with this we have the requiered proof.

And since b=1-p we have that:

\sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \frac{p(1-p)^{k-1}}{k}=-\frac{p ln p}{1-p}

4 0
4 years ago
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AlexFokin [52]

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

1. Find a common denominator. In this instance, we can use the denominator of 12 because both 3 and 4 are multiples of 12.

2. Multiply each fraction (numerator and denominator) to convert them.

1/3(4/4) = 4/12

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3. Subtract.

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4 0
4 years ago
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Hi pls help me ty in advance​
Anna35 [415]

A right angle = 90 degrees

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6. 3 3/8 x 360 = 1,215 degrees

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2 years ago
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