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Solnce55 [7]
3 years ago
8

What is the probability that a randomly chosen number between 1 and 100 is divisible by 3, given that the number has at least on

e digit equal to 5

Mathematics
1 answer:
ioda3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

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What is 34 + 56 x 34 and have a great day ?
Kruka [31]

Answer:

1938

Step-by-step explanation:

For this, you will need to use order of operations. You would need to multiply 56 and 34 to get 1904 first, because multiplication comes before addition.

Remember to use PEMDAS.

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
How do you solve 5 3/4 divided by 4 and show step by step
igomit [66]
There are various ways in which to do this problem.  I'd suggest
converting 5 3/4 into an improper fraction and then dividing that improper fraction by 4:

20+3                              23          1       23
------- divided by 4 is   --------- * ----- = ------   (answer)
   4                                   4           4       16
5 0
3 years ago
Determine which measure of center best represents the best data. Explain.​
Monica [59]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

I always like to use the mean if I can. In this data set, it's probably not a very good idea. Too much weight is given to that 7.2 and the two 3.2s.

I would choose the median, because the mode is the same answer and that's a good enough reason for choosing anything. 2 out 3 isn't bad as they say in Baseball.

6 0
3 years ago
Assign two variables for each problem, and write the equations. Do not solve.
GalinKa [24]
Call the amount of pineapple "P', and the amount of gingerale "G".

We know that a mix of pineapple and gingerale makes 200 cups. So: 
P+G=200

We also know that double the pineapple (i.e. 2P) and triple the gingerale (i.e. 3G) makes 420 cups. So:
2P+3G=420

We can now solve by substitution:
2P+3(200-P)=420
2P+600-3P=420
-P=-180
P=180

180+G=200
G=20

For 420 cups we need 2P=360 cups of pineapple and 3G=60 cups of gingerale]

3 0
3 years ago
G = {(5,3), (2, 3), (6,4)} Is G^-1 a function and why?
sleet_krkn [62]

Answer:

The inverse relation G^(-1) is not a function. Why not? Because the y value y = 3 is paired up with more than one x value (x = 5, x = 2). The inverse relation G^(-1) is the set shown below

{(3,5), (3,2), (4,6)}

All I've done is swap the (x,y) values for each ordered pair to form the inverse relation. As you can see, x = 3 leads to multiple y value outputs which is why this relation is not a function. So in short, the answer is choice C. To have the inverse relation be a function, each value in the original domain must map to exactly one value in the range only. However that doesn't happen as the domain values map to an overlapping y value (y = 3).

5 0
3 years ago
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