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2 years ago

There are 40 coins in a roll of nickles. Find the value of 25 rolls of nickels.

2 answers:

3 0

To get the answer you have to multiply the number of coins per roll which is 40 by the number of rolls which is 25. So the equation you get is 40*25. And the answer you get is 1000

Troyanec [42]2 years ago

3 0

well, we know a nickel is 5 cents, a dollar is 100 cents, how many times does 5 go into 100? 100 ÷ 5 = 20, twenty times, so there are 20 nickels in 1 dollar.

these rolls each have 40 nickels though, namely 20 + 20 = 1 dollar + 1 dollar, so there are 2 dollars in one of these rolls.

we know there are 2 bucks in a roll of nickels, how many in 25 rolls? 25 * 2 = $50.

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Lyrx [107]

Answer:

yes, you have it right except you need the 1458 negative

Step-by-step explanation:

Nice job getting them right!

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2 years ago

Given: y // z Prove: measure of angle 5 plus measure of angle 2 plus measure of angle 6 equals 180 degrees

lilavasa [31]

Step-by-step explanation:

Given: y // z Prove: measure of angle 5 plus measure of angle 2 plus measure of angle 6 equals 180 degrees

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3 years ago

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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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Maggie is practicing her penalty kicks for her upcoming soccer game. During the practice, she attempts 10 penalty kicks. If each

arlik [135]

Answer:

$P(X \geq 8)= P(X=8) +P(X=9) +P(X=10)$

And we can find the individual probabilities like this:

$P(X=8)=(10C8)(0.65)^0 (1-0.65)^{10-8}=0.176$

$P(X=9)=(10C9)(0.65)^1 (1-0.65)^{10-9}=0.072$

$P(X=10)=(10C10)(0.65)^2 (1-0.65)^{10-10}=0.013$

And adding we got:

$P(X \geq 8)= P(X=8) +P(X=9) +P(X=10)= 0.176+0.072+0.013=0.262$

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

$X \sim Binom(n=10, p=0.65)$

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

$P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}$

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

$nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}$

Solution to the problem

For this case we want to find this probability:

$P(X \geq 8)= P(X=8) +P(X=9) +P(X=10)$

And we can find the individual probabilities like this:

$P(X=8)=(10C8)(0.65)^0 (1-0.65)^{10-8}=0.176$

$P(X=9)=(10C9)(0.65)^1 (1-0.65)^{10-9}=0.072$

$P(X=10)=(10C10)(0.65)^2 (1-0.65)^{10-10}=0.013$

And adding we got:

$P(X \geq 8)= P(X=8) +P(X=9) +P(X=10)= 0.176+0.072+0.013=0.262$

5 0

2 years ago