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kap26 [50]
3 years ago
10

A spring with constant k = 78 N/m is at the base of a frictionless, 30.0°-inclined plane. A 0.50-kg block is pressed against the

spring, compressing it 0.20 m from its equilibrium position. The block is then released. If the block is not attached to the spring, how far up the incline will it travel before it stops?
Physics
1 answer:
olasank [31]3 years ago
4 0

Explanation:

The given data is as follows.

   Spring constant (k) = 78 N/m,     \theta = 30^{o}

 Mass of block (m) = 0.50 kg

According to the formula of energy conservation,

                mgh sin \theta = \frac{1}{2}kx^{2}

       h = \frac{1}{2} \times \frac{kx^{2}}{mg Sin \theta}

          = \frac{78 \times 0.04}{2 \times 0.5 \times 9.8 \times 0.5}

          = 0.64 m

Thus, we can conclude that the distance traveled by the block is 0.64 m.

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The drawing shows a plot of the output emf of a generator as a function of time t. The coil of this device has a cross-sectional
adell [148]

This question is incomplete, the missing image uploaded along this answer below;

Answer:

a) frequency is 2.381 Hz

b) the angular frequency/speed is 14.96 rad/s

c) the magnitude of the magnetic field is 0.5199 T

Explanation:

Given that;

cross sectional Area A = 0.018 m²

Number of turns N = 200

from the diagram. maximum time T = 0.42 sec

a) the frequency f of the generator in hertz

frequency = 1 / T

we substitute

frequency = 1 / 0.42 = 2.381 Hz

Therefore, frequency is 2.381 Hz

b)  the angular frequency in rad/s

angular speed ω = 2πf

we substitute

ω = 2π × 2.381

ω = 14.96 rad/s

Therefore, the angular frequency/speed is 14.96 rad/s

c) the magnitude of the magnetic field.

to determine the magnitude of the magnetic field, we use the following expression;

e = NBAω

from the diagram, e = 28.0 V

so we substitute

28.0 V = 200 × B × 0.018 × 14.96

28 = 53.856B

B = 28 / 53.856

B = 0.5199 T

Therefore, the magnitude of the magnetic field is 0.5199 T

6 0
3 years ago
The velocity of waves in a ripple tank is 10 centimeters per second, and standing waves are produced with nodes spaced 3.0 centi
Vsevolod [243]
<span>node spacing = half of wavelength = 3 cm velocity = 10 cm/s = freq * wavelength hench freq = 10/6 = 5/3 = 1.7 hz</span>
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4 years ago
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Sallie's recipe calls for a total of cups of flour to make biscuits. It says to use cup of flour from the total for rolling out
zloy xaker [14]

Answer:

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Explanation:

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A wheel with moment of inertia 25 kg. m2 and angular velocity 10 rad/s begins to speed up, with angular acceleration 15 rad/sec2
Pani-rosa [81]

Answer:

(A) Angular speed 40 rad/sec

Rotation = 50 rad

(b) 37812.5 J

Explanation:

We have given moment of inertia of the wheel I=25kgm^2

Initial angular velocity of the wheel \omega _0=10rad/sec

Angular acceleration \alpha =15rad/sec^2

(a) We know that \omega =\omega _0+\alpha t

We have given t = 2 sec

So \omega =10+15\times  2=40rad/sec

Now \Theta =\omega _0t+\frac{1}{2}\alpha t^2=10\times 2+\frac{1}{2}\times 15\times 2^2=50rad

(b) After 3 sec \omega =10+15\times 3=55rad/sec

We know that kinetic energy is given by Ke=\frac{1}{2}I\omega ^2=\frac{1}{2}\times 25\times 55^2=37812.5J

7 0
3 years ago
What will be the ME of a machine that produces a 240 N work with a 300
Elden [556K]

Answer:

Efficiency = 80%

Explanation:

Given the following data;

Work output = 240 N

Work Input = 300 N

To find the mechanical efficiency of a machine;

Efficiency = \frac {Out-put \; work}{In-put \; work} * 100

Substituting into the equation, we have;

Efficiency = \frac {240}{300} * 100

Efficiency = 0.8 * 100

Efficiency = 80%

Therefore, the mechanical efficiency of the machine is 80 percent.

3 0
3 years ago
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