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3 years ago

14

what is the equation in poiny slope form of the line that is perpendicular to the given line and passes through the point (-4, -

3)

2 answers:

MaRussiya [10]3 years ago

3 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Well, there is no given equation, but I can tell you that perpendicular lines have OPPOSITE <em>MULTIPLICATIVE INVERSE </em><em>[</em><em>RECIPROCAL</em><em>]</em><em> </em><em>rate of changes</em> [<em>slopes</em>].

Ex: 2 --> -½; -2 --> ½

erma4kov [3.2K]3 years ago

3 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Well, there is no given equation, but I can tell you that perpendicular lines have OPPOSITE MULTIPLICATIVE INVERSE [RECIPROCAL] rate of changes [slopes].

Ex: 2 --> -½; -2 --> ½

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What is 1/5 divided by 1/2

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The answer to your question is 0.1

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Answer:

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What is the answer to the equation 3(x+4.5)=36?

kozerog [31]

Answer:

$x = 7.5$

Step-by-step explanation:

$3(x + 4.5) = 36$

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2 years ago

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If X and Y are independent continuous positive random

Leni [432]

a) $Z=\frac XY$ has CDF

$F_Z(z)=P(Z\le z)=P(X\le Yz)=\displaystyle\int_{\mathrm{supp}(Y)}P(X\le yz\mid Y=y)P(Y=y)\,\mathrm dy$

$F_Z(z)\displaystyle=\int_{\mathrm{supp}(Y)}P(X\le yz)P(Y=y)\,\mathrm dy$

where the last equality follows from independence of $X,Y$ . In terms of the distribution and density functions of $X,Y$ , this is

$F_Z(z)=\displaystyle\int_{\mathrm{supp}(Y)}F_X(yz)f_Y(y)\,\mathrm dy$

Then the density is obtained by differentiating with respect to $z$ ,

$f_Z(z)=\displaystyle\frac{\mathrm d}{\mathrm dz}\int_{\mathrm{supp}(Y)}F_X(yz)f_Y(y)\,\mathrm dy=\int_{\mathrm{supp}(Y)}yf_X(yz)f_Y(y)\,\mathrm dy$

b) $Z=XY$ can be computed in the same way; it has CDF

$F_Z(z)=P\left(X\le\dfrac zY\right)=\displaystyle\int_{\mathrm{supp}(Y)}P\left(X\le\frac zy\right)P(Y=y)\,\mathrm dy$

$F_Z(z)\displaystyle=\int_{\mathrm{supp}(Y)}F_X\left(\frac zy\right)f_Y(y)\,\mathrm dy$

Differentiating gives the associated PDF,

$f_Z(z)=\displaystyle\int_{\mathrm{supp}(Y)}\frac1yf_X\left(\frac zy\right)f_Y(y)\,\mathrm dy$

Assuming $X\sim\mathrm{Exp}(\lambda_x)$ and $Y\sim\mathrm{Exp}(\lambda_y)$ , we have

$f_{Z=\frac XY}(z)=\displaystyle\int_0^\infty y(\lambda_xe^{-\lambda_xyz})(\lambda_ye^{\lambda_yz})\,\mathrm dy$

$\implies f_{Z=\frac XY}(z)=\begin{cases}\frac{\lambda_x\lambda_y}{(\lambda_xz+\lambda_y)^2}&\text{for }z\ge0\\0&\text{otherwise}\end{cases}$

and

$f_{Z=XY}(z)=\displaystyle\int_0^\infty\frac1y(\lambda_xe^{-\lambda_xyz})(\lambda_ye^{\lambda_yz})\,\mathrm dy$

$\implies f_{Z=XY}(z)=\lambda_x\lambda_y\displaystyle\int_0^\infty\frac{e^{-\lambda_x\frac zy-\lambda_yy}}y\,\mathrm dy$

I wouldn't worry about evaluating this integral any further unless you know about the Bessel functions.

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