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Xelga [282]
3 years ago
15

What is the 1 in the 110

Mathematics
1 answer:
dezoksy [38]3 years ago
8 0
You can divide 110 by 1 to see how many 1's go in 110:
110/1 = 110

This means that there are 110 1's in 110.

Hope this helps! :)
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The Candy Shack sells 138 pounds of candy on Tuesday. They sold 71.76 pounds of jelly beans. What percent of the candy sold was
Pepsi [2]

<u>Answer:</u>

<h2>52% were jelly beans!</h2>

<u>Explanation</u><u>:</u>

<em>Cross </em><em>multiply </em><em>the </em><em>following:</em>

<em>\frac{x}{100}  =  \frac{71.76}{138}</em>

<em>x </em><em>times </em><em>1</em><em>3</em><em>8</em><em> </em><em>=</em><em> </em><em>1</em><em>3</em><em>8</em><em>x</em>

<em>100 </em><em>times </em><em>7</em><em>1</em><em>.</em><em>7</em><em>6</em><em> </em><em>=</em><em> </em><em>7</em><em>,</em><em>1</em><em>7</em><em>6</em>

<em>Divide </em><em>both </em><em>sides </em><em>by </em><em>1</em><em>3</em><em>8</em><em>:</em>

<em>\frac{138x}{138}  =  \frac{7176}{138}</em>

<h3><em>x </em><em>=</em><em> </em><em>5</em><em>2</em><em>%</em></h3>
6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The ability to influence another is a function of ______<br>= Dependency
inysia [295]

Step-by-step explanation:

The ability to influence another is a function of dependency hahahaja

6 0
3 years ago
8. Where will the hour hand of a clock stop if it starts:
Virty [35]

Answer:

a. 11

b. 9

Step-by-step explanation:

thats the answer

3 0
3 years ago
If 50 one-cent coins were stacked on top of
Sedbober [7]

To make 8 inch tall column approximately 61 coins required.

Given,

Total one cent coins stacked on top of each other in a column = 50

Height of column = 378 inches

Approximate height of one coin = ( 50 / 378)

                                                    = 0.132 inches

To make an 8 inches tall stack No of coins required will be:

Number of coins required  = ( total height / height of one coin )

                   = ( 8 / 0.132 )

                   = 60.60

                    ≅ 61 coins

To make 8 inch tall column approximately 61 coins required.

Learn more about coins here: brainly.com/question/11677207

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7 0
1 year ago
Assume f is a one to one function of f(x)= 4-6x find f^-1(-32)​
OleMash [197]

Answer:

f^-1(-32)=6

Step-by-step explanation:

<u>Find the inverse of the function f(x)=4-6x:</u>

f(x)=4-6x

y=4-6x

x=4-6y

x-4=-6y

(x-4)/-6=y

-1/6x+2/3=y

y=-1/6x+2/3

f^-1(x)=-1/6x+2/3

<u>Plug in f^-1(-32) for f^-1(x) and simplify:</u>

f^-1(-32)=-1/6(-32)+2/3

f^-1(-32)=16/3+2/3

f^-1(-32)=18/3

f^-1(-32)=6

5 0
3 years ago
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