1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
amm1812
3 years ago
9

Swifty Company issued $456,000 of 10%, 20-year bonds on January 1, 2020, at 101. Interest is payable semiannually on July 1 and

January 1. Swifty Company uses the straight-line method of amortization for bond premium or discount. Prepare the journal entries to record the following. (If no entry is required, select "No Entry" for the account titles and enter 0 for the amounts. Credit account titles are automatically indented when amount is entered. Do not indent manually.) (a) The issuance of the bonds. (b) The payment of interest and the related amortization on July 1, 2020. (c) The accrual of interest and the related amortization on December 31, 2020.
Business
1 answer:
Roman55 [17]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Swifty Company

a) Issuance of the bonds:

Debit Cash Account $460,560

Credit Bonds Payable $456,000

Credit Bonds Premium Amortization $4,560

To record the bonds issue and related premium.

b) Payment of interest and related amortization on July 1, 2020:

Debit Interest on Bonds $22,686

Debit Bonds Premium Amortization $114

Credit Cash Account $22,800

c) Accrual of interest and the related amortization on December 31, 2020:

Debit Interest on Bonds $22,686

Debit Bonds Premium Amortization $114

Credit Cash Account $22,800

Explanation:

The total cash received from the bonds issuance is $456,000 x 101% = $460,560.  This amount includes the bonds premium amounting to $4,560, which is the difference between the amount received and the actual value of the bonds.  This amount will be amortized on a straight-line basis over 20 years, semi-annually at $114.

You might be interested in
The idea that the relationship between a worker and employer is voluntary and can be terminated at any time, by either party, is
kiruha [24]

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "A": employment-at-will doctrine.

Explanation:

The employment-at-will doctrine is an organizational practice in which employers could terminate labor relationships at any moment with no need for explanations and workers as well could cease the relationship without major reason. This practice aimed to avoid lawsuits between employers and workers.

4 0
3 years ago
In the absence of government regulation or private negotiation, firms will pollute less than the economically optimal amount.
juin [17]
Wrong in absence of gov. there will be no laws to abide so essentially they can do as they please.<span />
7 0
3 years ago
In order to obtain leave under the Family and Medical Leave Act, an employee whose need for a leave is foreseeable must advise t
Butoxors [25]

Answer:

<u>30</u>

Explanation:

Under the relevant provisions of the Family Medical Leave Act, an employee whose leave requirements for the future are already known to him or which are predictable, should serve a notice for leave in the same regard at least 30 days prior to the expected date from which the leave shall begin.

If such leaves cannot be anticipated 30 days prior, the employee in such a scenario shall serve the notice for leave as soon as possible i.e the moment the leaves are anticipated. The term associated with above being, "as soon as practicable".

3 0
3 years ago
Acme, Inc., which manufactures the fireworks that municipal governments buy to put on their annual fireworks shows on the Fourth
kap26 [50]

Answer:

Reshoring.

Explanation:

Reshoring is the process of returning the production and manufacturing of goods back to the company's original country. Reshoring is also known as onshoring, inshoring or backshoring.

7 0
3 years ago
Nichols Company uses the percentage of receivables method for recording bad debts expense. The accounts receivable balance is $2
lora16 [44]

Answer:

bad debt expense 6,000 debit

allowance for uncollectible amounts 6,000 credit

Explanation:

expected allowance balance:

account receivable x expected uncollectible amount

200,000 x 4% = 8,000

currently the allowance balance is 2,000

so the amount of the adjustment will be to move the balance to 8,000 from 2,000:  adjusting entry for 6,000

3 0
3 years ago
Other questions:
  • Working from home only works in a few kinds of businesses<br> true<br> false
    11·2 answers
  • Which of the following is a benefit of doing business with an online bank? A. 24 hours/7 days a week business hours
    11·2 answers
  • Chantel works at Coca-Cola. To make the required sales number, Chantel sent more Coca-Cola products to their distributors than w
    14·1 answer
  • In the ________ form of ownership, the business itself pays income taxes.
    12·2 answers
  • Juan is speaking at a senior center about the advantages of buying items online. Knowing that many of his listeners no longer dr
    6·1 answer
  • A federal tax is paid to?
    7·2 answers
  • In the month of March the Digby Corporation received and delivered orders of 173,000 units at a price of $15.00 for revenue of $
    6·1 answer
  • All of the following are TRUE of a covered call writing strategy EXCEPT: (A) The strategy works best in a bull market. (B) The c
    5·1 answer
  • What was the innovative way pears’ soap marketed its product?
    14·1 answer
  • a bank lender is concerned about the creditworthiness of one of its major borrowers. the bank is considering using a swap to red
    9·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!