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Bond [772]
3 years ago
13

For the spinner above, the probability of landing on black is 1/2, and the probability of landing on red is 1/3. Suppose it is s

pun three times. What is the probability it will land on black all three times?
Mathematics
1 answer:
8_murik_8 [283]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

1/8

Step-by-step explanation:

P = 1/2 × 1/2 × 1/2

P = 1/8

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diamong [38]

Answer: Hey, your answer should be 372, if i’m wrong, im so sorry.

Step-by-step explanation:

8 0
2 years ago
2(n - 1) + 4n = 2(3n - 1)
Sloan [31]
2(n - 1) + 4n = 2(3n - 1)
2n - 2 + 4n = 6n -2
6n - 2 = 6n - 2 (equal)
6n - 6n = 2 - 2
0 = 0

whatever value you put into the place of n, you'll get 0 = 0
3 0
3 years ago
Please help emergency
Firdavs [7]

Step-by-step explanation:

This is a probability related problem.

  Probability is the likelihood of an event to occur;

    Pr = \frac{number of possible outcomes}{Total sample space}

The sample space here is from 1 to 25 which is 25

A.

Pr of a card marked 8; we have just 1 possible outcome;

       Pr(8)  = \frac{1}{25}

B.

Pr  of drawing a card that is a multiple of 5;

    Multiples of 5 = 5, 10, 15 and 25

     Pr (multiples of 5) = \frac{4}{25}

C.

Pr of drawing a card with odd numbers:

          Number of odd numbers between 1 and 25  = 13

     Pr(odd numbers) = \frac{13}{25}

D.

Pr of drawing a number with square number on it;

        Square numbers between 1 and 25  = 1, 4, 9, 16 and 25

  Pr(square numbers) = \frac{5}{25}   = \frac{1}{5}

3 0
2 years ago
Given:
lubasha [3.4K]
<span>SAS You've been given that AC = BC. So that's the first side or S of the proof. Then you've been given â 3 = â 4, which is the angle. And finally, CM = CM, which is the second S. So you have AC=BC, and â 3 = â 4, and finally CM = CM. So SAS can be used to prove that triangle ACM is congruent to triangle BCM.</span>
6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Donna the trainer has two solo workout plans that she offers her clients: Plan A and Plan B. Each client does either one or the
kykrilka [37]
X=hours of plan A
y=hours of plan B

wed: 5x+6y=12
thu: 3x+2y=6

so
5x+6y=12 and
3x+2y=6
we can eliminate y's by multiplying 2nd equation by -3 and adding to first equation

-9x-6y=-18
<u>5x+6y=12 +</u>
-4x+0y=-6

-4x=-6
divid both sides by -4
x=-6/-4
x=3/2
x=1.5

sub back

3x+2y=6
3(1.5)+2y=6
4.5+2y=6
2y=1.5
y=0.75



Plan A=1.5 hours
Plan B=0.75 hours
3 0
2 years ago
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