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3 years ago

Given parallelogram ABCD, solve for X

Mathematics

1 answer:

shtirl [24]3 years ago

3 0

Opposite sides of a parallelogram are congruent, so make BC and AD equal to each other in an equation.

BC = AD

16 + 2x = 10 + 8x

Subract 2x from both sides.

16 = 10 + 6x

Subtract 10 from both sides.

6 = 6x

Divide both sides by 6.

x = 1

B) 1 is your answer.

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jessie worked four more hours than Ben. They worked a total of 25 hours. How many hours did each boy workz?

Mandarinka [93]

Answer:

jessie: 14.5

ben: 10.5

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3 years ago

PLZ HELP ASAP!!! Will give brainlest ❗️❗️❗️❗️

ohaa [14]

Answer:

<em>I</em>(-1,3)

Step-by-step explanation:

Moving 3 units left adds -3 to x value

Moving 6 units up adds 6 to the y value

2 - 3 = -1

-3 + 6 = 3

(-1,3)

If my answer is incorrect, pls correct me!

If you like my answer and explanation, mark me as brainliest!

-Chetan K

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3 years ago

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Since it is given that AB ≅ AC, it must also be true that AB = AC. Assume ∠B and ∠C are not congruent. Then the measure of one a

mrs_skeptik [129]

<span>Since it is given that AB ≅ AC, it must also be true that AB = AC. Assume ∠B and ∠C are not congruent. Then the measure of one angle is greater than the other. If m∠B > m∠C, then AC > AB because of the triangle parts relationship theorem. For the same reason, if m∠B < m∠C, then AC < AB. This is a contradiction to what is given. Therefore, it can be concluded that

Answer: Angle (B) is Congruent to Angle (C)

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3 years ago

You take a quiz with 6 multiple choice questions. After you studied your estimated that you would have about an 80 % chance of g

Arada [10]

Answer:

1.15%

Step-by-step explanation:

To get the probability of m independent events you multiply the individual probability of each event. In this case we have m independent events, each one with the same probability, therefore:

$p^{m}$

$0.8^{20} = 1.15\%$

This is a particlar scenario of binomial distribution problem. So the binomial distribution questions are about the number of success of m independent events, where every individual event has the same p probability. In the question we have 20 events and each event has a probability of 80%. The binomial distribution formula is:

$\binom{n}{k} * p^{k} * (1-p)^{n-k}$

n is the number of events

k is the number of success

p is the probability of each individual event

$\binom{n}{k}$ is the binomial coefficient

the binomial coefficient allows to find the subsets of k elements in a set of n elements. In this case there is only one subset possible since the only way to get 20 of 20 correct questions is to getting right all questions (for getting 19 of 20 questions there are many ways, for example getting the first question wrong and all the other questions right, or getting second questions wrong and all the other questions right, etc).

$\binom{n}{k} = \frac{n!}{k!(n-k)!}$

therefore, for this questions we have:

$\frac{20!}{20!(20-20)!} * 0.8^{20} * (1-0.8)^{0} = 1.15\%$

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3 years ago

Find the four arithmetic means between 100 and 135. Show work.

Masteriza [31]

Answer:

Please read the answers below.

Step-by-step explanation:

Let's calculate the four means between 100 and 135, this way:

1. Arithmetic mean:

(100 + 135)/2 = 117.5

2. Weighted mean:

We will assign equal weight to both numbers : 5

(100 * 5 + 135 * 5)/10 = (500 + 675)/10 = 1,175/10 = 117.5

3. Geometric mean:

√100 * 135 = √13,500 = 116.2 (Rounding to the next tenth)

4. Harmonic mean:

2/(1/100 + 1/135) = 2/(0.01 + 0.0074) = 114.9 (Rounding to the next tenth)

7 0

3 years ago

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