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IgorLugansk [536]
3 years ago
13

Consider the function f given by f(x)=x*(e^(-x^2)) for all real numbers x.

Mathematics
2 answers:
NISA [10]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

\frac{\sqrt{\pi}}{4}

Step-by-step explanation:

You are going to integrate the following function:

g(x)=x*f(x)=x*xe^{-x^2}=x^2e^{-x^2}  (1)

furthermore, you know that:

\int_0^{\infty}e^{-x^2}=\frac{\sqrt{\pi}}{2}

lets call to this integral, the integral Io.

for a general form of I you have In:

I_n=\int_0^{\infty}x^ne^{-ax^2}dx

furthermore you use the fact that:

I_n=-\frac{\partial I_{n-2}}{\partial a}

by using this last expression in an iterative way you obtain the following:

\int_0^{\infty}x^{2s}e^{-ax^2}dx=\frac{(2s-1)!!}{2^{s+1}a^s}\sqrt{\frac{\pi}{a}} (2)

with n=2s a even number

for s=1 you have n=2, that is, the function g(x). By using the equation (2) (with a = 1) you finally obtain:

\int_0^{\infty}x^2e^{-x^2}dx=\frac{(2(1)-1)!}{2^{1+1}(1^1)}\sqrt{\pi}=\frac{\sqrt{\pi}}{4}

tankabanditka [31]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

\int^{\infty}_{0}xf(x)dx=\frac{\pi}{4}  

Step-by-step explanation:

We need to find the integrate of:

\int^{\infty}_{0}xf(x)dx

Let's use the integration by parts rule.

\int^{\infty}_{0}xf(x)dx=u*v-\int vdu (1)

u=x and du=dx

dv=f(x)dx and v=\int f(x)dx

f(x)=xe^{-x^{2}}

v=\int xe^{-x^{2}}dx if we use change variable we can solve it, we can do a=-x^{2} then da=-2xdx

So we have:

v=-\frac{1}{2}\int e^{a}da

v=-\frac{1}{2}e^{-x^{2}}

Using this in (1) we have:

\int^{\infty}_{0}xf(x)dx=(-\frac{1}{2}x*e^{-x^{2}})|^{\infty}_{0}-\int^{\infty}_{0} (-\frac{1}{2}e^{-x^{2}})dx

The used criteria to make the first term zero is because the exponential tends to zero faster than the x tends to infinity.    

\int^{\infty}_{0}xf(x)dx=0+\frac{1}{2}\int^{\infty}_{0} e^{-x^{2}}dx  

We know that the integral from 0 to infinity of e^{-x^{2}}=\frac{\sqrt{\pi}}{2}, hence:  \int^{\infty}_{0}xf(x)dx=0+\frac{1}{2}\frac{\sqrt{\pi}}{2}

\int^{\infty}_{0}xf(x)dx=\frac{\pi}{4}  

I hope it helps you!

 

         

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