Answer: minimum hourly wage is $8.75
Step-by-step explanation:
To get the minimum hourly wage, we divide $350 by 40hrs
= $350 ÷ 40
= $8.75
For the first one, you have to convert the fractions to an improper fraction. To do that you need to multiply the bottom denominator number (3) by the whole number (1) then you need to add the numinator, so 3x1+2= 5. You have to keep the denominator so 1 2/3 is equal to 5/3. Then do the same to 2 1/5, and you get 11/5. Now you have to find a common denominator, that's basically the smallest number that both numbers can go Into, the lowest common denominator for 3 and 5 is 15. So 3x5= 15, so we have to multiply the top number by 5 which is 25. So 5/3 is equal to 25/15, then 5x3= 15, so you need to multiply 11 by 3 which is 33. So 11/5 is equal to 33/15. Then you add them. Add the numinators (25+33=58. Then you keep the denominator 15. So when u add it it's 58/15 then you need to simplify that and you get 3 13/15.
The second one you turn them into improper fractions like I told you how to before (multiply the bottom number by the whole number then add he top number, then add he same denominator.) do that for both. Then you line them right next to each other and multiply across. (I just realized that they were the same number so they are equal to 5/3 and 11/5)
Then you do 5x11 and you get 55 then do 3x5 and you get 15. 55/15 is your answer, but you need to simplify it, you need to divide 55 by 15, (not all the way just the first number) so you do 15x3 and that's 45, then you subtract that from 55, and you get 10, so then you take your denominator (15) and you answer is 3 10/15. But when you simplify it it's 3 and 2/3
Hope I helped sorry it's so long and sorry for any typos it's so long I didn't go back and check
Answer:
b. A binomial variable with 25 independent trials
Step-by-step explanation:
The conducted experiment is binomial experiment because outcome can be divided into success or failure. The success would be the people who read novel in the past year and also responses are independent of each other. We have to find the number of trials n in the given problem.
we are given that variance of R=6 and p=probability of success=0.4.
We know that variance of binomial distribution is
Variance=npq
where q=1-p=1-0.4=0.6.
By putting the values in variance formula, we can get the value of n.
6=n*0.4*0.6
6=0.24*n
n=6/0.24
n=25
Hence, random variable R is a binomial variable with 25 independent trials.
Answer:
4% of 175,000 is 7,000
7,000x 5=35,000
175,000-42,000 equals 140,000 the value of the house
Answer:
3
Step-by-step explanation:
The goal is to get the x to be on one side of the equation on its own.
-6x = -18
To get rid of the -6, we would have to do the opposite of what it's doing in the equation - in this case, we would divide, as it's the opposite of multiplying.
What we do to one side of the equation, we have to do to the other.
-6x/-6 = x
-18/-6 = 3
x = 3
Hope that makes sense!
