Answer:
Explanation:
this problem can be solved applying the concept of annuity, keep in mind that an annuity is a formula which allows you to calculate the future value of future payments affected by an interest rate.by definition the future value of an annuity is given by:
where 
is the future value of the annuity, 
is the interest rate for every period payment, n is the number of payments, and P is the regular amount paid
But there is an special thing to keep in mind and is the initial payment so we must to calculate the 4,000 in the future so we have:
When surplus <span>funds are set aside (idling the excess) and the government does not spend the money nor apply it to past debt, this action does not cause expansion or contraction.
That statement is true. Expansion or contraction happens when the amount of Government budget is accumulated or decreased as the result of last year's operations</span>
<span>Retirement income for older women is about 55 percent of that for men. In the year 2009, 16 percent of single older men and 21 percent of single older women cut down under the poverty line. Among individuals aged 65, more than two times as many men as women have private pensions.</span>
Answer:
The correct answer is option A.
Explanation:
The present value of all free cash flows gives the share value under the free cash flow approach to valuation. It is also called a discounted cash flow valuation.
Answer:
The rate of return on the risky asset is 16% and on treasury bill is 6% and we need a return of (1100-1,000)/1000= 10% or 0.1
If we think of x as the percentage investment in risky asset and 1-x as the investment in non risky asset we can mathematically find what proportion we need to invest in each asset to get this return.
16x+ 6(1-x)=10
16x+6-6x=10
10x=4
x=4/10
x= 0.4
This equation tells us that we should invest 40% in risky assets and 1-x which is 60% in treasury bills. We can test our answer by putting these values and see if the return is 10 %
(0.4*16)+(0.6*6)= Rate of return
Rate of return=10%
10% of 1000 = 100
100+1000=$1100
Explanation:
