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kotegsom [21]
3 years ago
14

At the malt shop a large chocolate shake takes 8/9 of a pint of milk.If the medium shake takes 1/7 the amount of the large how m

uch does the medium shake take
Mathematics
1 answer:
omeli [17]3 years ago
8 0
There are several information's of immense importance in the problem. Based on these information's the answer to the question can be easily reached. The only thing that has to be kept in mind is the calculation part, otherwise it is a simple problem.
Now it is given that:
A large chocolate shake takes 8/9 of a pint of milk.
Then
Amount of milk required to make medium shake = (8/9) * (1/7) of a pint
                                                                              = 8/63 of a pint
Then it can be said that for making a medium chocolate shake , 8/63 of a pint of milk is required. This is the simplest form of the fraction and it cannot be expressed as a mixed number since the denominator is higher than the numerator.
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school teacher and needs 22 pieces of wood, 3 over 8 ft long, for a class project. If he has a 9-ft board from which to cut the
tiny-mole [99]

Answer:

Yes, he will have enough 3 over 8 ft pieces for his class.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

Number of wood required = 22

Length of each wood, l=\frac{3}{8}\textrm{ ft}

Total length of the board, L=9\textrm{ ft}

Therefore, the number of woods that can be made using the given board is given as:

\textrm{Number of woods made}=\frac{\textrm{Total length of board}}{\textrm{Length of each wood}}\\\textrm{Number of woods made}=\frac{L}{l}=\frac{9}{\frac{3}{8}}=9\times \frac{8}{3}=\frac{72}{3}=24

So, he can make 24 woods of length \frac{3}{8}\textrm{ ft} using the 9 ft board. But he has to make only 22 pieces.

Therefore, he has enough of the wood to make the required number of pieces.

3 0
3 years ago
Peter complete 7 miles in 6 min. At what rate must
marta [7]
49 due to divide and multiply steps
3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Ryan buys a bag of cookies that contains 8 chocolate chip cookies, 4 peanut butter cookies, 4 sugar
Pavlova-9 [17]

Answer:

4/69 to be exact. Slightly greater than 1/18

Step-by-step explanation:

The chance of selecting the PB cookie on the first try is 4 out of 24 or 1 out of 6. There are now 23 coolies left; 8 are chocolate, so 8/23 chance. (Slightly greater than 1/3) The chance of both events happening is the product if the individual events' chances. So multiply 1/6 times 8/23 to get 8/138. That reduces to 4/ 69. If he had put that first cookie back, the multiplication would have been 1/6×1/3. A lot easier.

4 0
3 years ago
Question 18
Viktor [21]

Answer:

the answer is b

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
Please no link because I can't access it when it's sent.please am asking no link ​
erma4kov [3.2K]

Answer:

x ≈ 1051.368672

Step-by-step explanation for #3:

tan(\frac{x}{12}) =24          <em>Use tangent function because it relates to the opposite and adjacent sides of the triangle.</em>

<em />tan^{-1}(tan(\frac{x}{12}))=tan^{-1}(24)<em />

<em />\frac{x}{12} = tan^{-1}(24)<em />

<em />x = 12[tan^{-1}(24)]<em />

x ≈ 1051.368672

If you have any more questions, feel free to ask and I'll answer them in the comments section under this answer. Please consider marking my answer as Brainliest, because it really helps me out.

Thanks!

7 0
3 years ago
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