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emmasim [6.3K]
3 years ago
11

Please help ASAP!!!!! will mark you brainliest thank you!

Mathematics
2 answers:
Ilya [14]3 years ago
5 0

1. The coefficient of 2 is 2. Therefore, the answer is 2 for a. 1 is the coefficient of -x after we add it to the left side. Therefore, b is 1. C is 5, as it is the only whole number.

This means that the answer is a = 2, b =1, c =5.

2. You can simply cancel out both of the 3s by dividing, which leaves us with  1+9.

3.  The answer is c.

I hope this helped!

EastWind [94]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

1. The coefficient of 2x^{2} is 2. Therefore, the answer is 2 for a. 1 is the coefficient of -x after we add it to the left side. Therefore, b is 1. C is 5, as it is the only whole number.

This means that the answer is a = 2, b =1, c =5.

2. You can simply cancel out both 3s by dividing, which leaves us with  1±9\sqrt{5}.

3.  The answer is c. Unfortunately, I can't explain that, it's just a well known formula.

I hope this helped!

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Based on the given inequality of y≥ x - 1, the graph that matches it best is C. Graph A.

<h3>How are inequalities graphed?</h3>

When graphing an inequality with the "greater or equal" and "less or equal" signs, the line will be a steady line as shown by graphs A and B.

If y is the larger or equal variable, the shaded area will be to the left of the line.

The inequality is y≥ x - 1 which means that the line should be steady and the shading should be on the left of the line. Graph A is therefore the correct graph.

Find out more on graphing inequalities at brainly.com/question/11234618.

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I WILL GIVE 300 POINTS PLEASE JUST HELPP MEE AND I WILL MARK BRAINLY!!
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Answer:

it is equivalent

Step-by-step explanation:

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How do you do these two questions?
nignag [31]

Step-by-step explanation:

(a) ∫₋ₒₒ°° f(x) dx

We can split this into three integrals:

= ∫₋ₒₒ⁻¹ f(x) dx + ∫₋₁¹ f(x) dx + ∫₁°° f(x) dx

Since the function is even (symmetrical about the y-axis), we can further simplify this as:

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The first integral is finite, so it converges.

For the second integral, we can use comparison test.

g(x) = e^(-½ x) is greater than f(x) = e^(-½ x²) for all x greater than 1.

We can show that g(x) converges:

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Therefore, the smaller function f(x) also converges.

(b) The width of the intervals is:

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Evaluating the function at the beginning and end of each interval:

f(-3) = e^(-9/2)

f(-2) = e^(-2)

f(-1) = e^(-1/2)

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f(2) = e^(-2)

f(3) = e^(-9/2)

Apply Simpson's rule:

S = Δx/3 [f(-3) + 4f(-2) + 2f(-1) + 4f(0) + 2f(1) + 4f(2) + f(3)]

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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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Answer:

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Hence

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