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Ahat [919]
3 years ago
11

An advantage of absorption cost transfer pricing arises from the fact that Select one: A. This method keeps the purchasing divis

ion content. B. This method encourages the selling division to operate efficiently. C. This method allows the selling division to make a contribution toward covering long run fixed costs. D. This method is not as easy to implement as other methods.
Business
1 answer:
Roman55 [17]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

This method encourages the selling division to operate efficiently.

Explanation:

Absorption cost transfer pricing is very essential to determine the right amount in which goods and services will be sold in the market. It involves setting a price for a particular product with inclusion of all its variable costs.

Absorption cost transfer pricing enables an organization to maximise profit this is because all the different cost incurred during production are added to the price of the product.

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Human resource​ (HR) management includes activities such​ as: A. Analyzing competitors B. ​Disciplining, promoting,​ transferrin
natita [175]
Answer:
The answer is B. Disciplining, promoting, transferring, and demoting.

Hope This Helps!
Can I get Brainliest?
8 0
3 years ago
Susan Daniels works for an event management company and is discontent with her job because she was passed over for a promotion.
Verdich [7]

Answer:

The correct answer is Voice.

Explanation:

Taking into account the framework of exit, voice, loyalty and negligence, voice means directly raising comments on a particular situation that influences within the work team, so that superiors are aware of situations and can ask themselves solutions for the benefit of all.

4 0
3 years ago
You win a lottery with a prize of $1.5 million. Unfortunately the prize is paid in 10 equal annual installments. The first payme
EastWind [94]

The prize is really worth $1,006,512.21.

<h3>What is present value?</h3>

Present value is the sum of cash flows discounted at the rate of interest or the discount rate.  The annual cash flows for the next 10 years = $1.5 million / 10 = 150,000

The present value can be determined using a financial calculator

Cash flow from year 1 to 10 = $150,000

Discount rate = 8%

Present value = $1,006,512.21

Here is the complete question: You win a lottery with a prize of $1.5 million. Unfortunately the prize is paid in 10 an¬nual installments. The first payment is next year. How much is the prize really worth? The discount rate is 8 percent.

To learn more about present value, please check: brainly.com/question/25748668

3 0
2 years ago
You are the beneficiary of a life insurance policy. the insurance company informs you that you have two options for receiving th
lesantik [10]

So in this case, you would need to find the present value (PV) of the monthly payments. With the information given, you would have a PV= 195,413.08, which is less than the lump sum payment. In this case, you would take the 1 time payment.

Another way to look at this is to calculate the future value (FV) of both payouts. For the lump sum payment, you would assume the same interest rate (6%) and at the end of the same 20 years period, your investment would be worth 662,040.90 while the monthly payment option would be worth 646,857.25

7 0
3 years ago
The Optical Scam Company has forecast a sales growth of 20 percent for next year. The current financial statements are shown her
Stolb23 [73]

Answer:

The external financing needed for next year is $1,766,004.

Explanation:

The external financing needed for next year can be calculated using the following formula:

External financing needed = ((Total assets / Sales) * Change in sales) - ((Short-term liabilities / Sales) * Change in sales) - ((Projected sales * Profit margin) * (1 - Dividend payout ratio)) ................... (1)

Where;

Total assets =  $24,705,000

Sales = $30,500,000

Change in sales = Sales * Sales growth rate = $30,500,000 * 20% = $6,100,000

Short-term liabilities = Accounts payable = $6,405,000

Projected sales = Sales * (1 + Sales growth rate) = $30,500,000 * (1 + 20%) = $36,600,000

Profit margin = Net income / Sales = $2,630,550 / $30,500,000 = 0.0862475409836066

Dividend payout ratio = Dividends / Net income = $1,052,220 / $2,630,550 = 0.40

Substituting all the values into equation (1), we have:

External financing needed = (($24,705,000 / $30,500,000) * $6,100,000) - (($6,405,000 / $30,500,000) * $6,100,000) - (($36,600,000 * 0.0862475409836066) * (1 - 0.4))

External financing needed = $1,766,004

Therefore, the external financing needed for next year is $1,766,004.

8 0
3 years ago
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