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MAXImum [283]
3 years ago
10

Find the midpoint of segment with the following endpoint (2,3) and (-5,-2)

Mathematics
1 answer:
RideAnS [48]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

(-1.5,0.5)

Step-by-step explanation:

In the attached file

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For each of the following questions, draw a diagram to explain your answer.
telo118 [61]

Answer:

fourth are in one half

Step-by-step explanation:

please mark me as brainlist please

8 0
2 years ago
In ΔUVW, w = 3 inches, ∠W=23° and ∠U=73°. Find the length of u, to the nearest 10th of an inch.
kirza4 [7]

Answer:

<h2>7.4inches</h2>

Step-by-step explanation:

Check the attachment for the diagram. Sine rule will be used to get the unknown side of the triangle.

According to the rule;

\frac{u}{sinU} =  \frac{v}{sinV} = \frac{w}{sinW}\\\frac{u}{sinU} = \frac{w}{sinW}

Given w = 3 in, ∠W=23° and ∠U=73°, on substituting into the equation above to get u we have;

\frac{u}{sin73^{0} } = \frac{3}{sin23^{0} }\\usin23^{0} = 3sin73^{0}\\u = \frac{3sin73^{0} }{sin23^{0} }\\u = \frac{2.87}{0.39} \\u = 7.358\\u = 7.4in

The length of u is 7.4inches to nearest 10th of an inch

6 0
3 years ago
You are at a stall at a fair where you have to throw a ball at a target. There are two versions of the game. In the first
Tomtit [17]

Answer:

P(X=0)=(3C0)(0.1)^0 (1-0.1)^{3-0}=0.729

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.729

P(Y=0)=(5C0)(0.05)^0 (1-0.05)^{5-0}=0.774

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.774

As we can see the best alternative is the first version since the probability of loss is lower than the probability of loss on version 2.

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Solution to the problem

Alternative 1

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

X \sim Binom(n=3, p=0.1)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}

We can find the probability of loss like this P(X=0) and if we find this probability we got this:

P(X=0)=(3C0)(0.1)^0 (1-0.1)^{3-0}=0.729

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.729

Alternative 2

Let Y the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

Y \sim Binom(n=5, p=0.05)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(Y)=(nCy)(p)^y (1-p)^{n-y}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCy=\frac{n!}{(n-y)! y!}

We can find the probability of loss like this P(Y=0) and if we find this probability we got this:

P(Y=0)=(5C0)(0.05)^0 (1-0.05)^{5-0}=0.774

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.774

As we can see the best alternative is the first version since the probability of loss is lower than the probability of loss on version 2.

4 0
3 years ago
Can someone please help me with these questions!! Thanks,
fiasKO [112]

6a. 1 - 2sin(x)² - 2cos(x)² = 1 - 2(sin(x)² +cos(x)²) = 1 - 2·1 = -1

6c. tan(x) + sin(x)/cos(x) = tan(x) + tan(x) = 2tan(x)

6e. 3sin(x) + tan(x)cos(x) = 3sin(x) + (sin(x)/cos(x))cos(x) = 3sin(x) +sin(x) = 4sin(x)

6g. 1 - cos(x)²tan(x)² = 1 - cos(x)²·(sin(x)²)/cos(x)²) = 1 -sin(x)² = cos(x)²

8 0
3 years ago
Ratio and fraction question
asambeis [7]
1 and 1/5

If we are subtracting
4 0
3 years ago
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