Answer:
<u>13.2%</u>
Explanation:
As per Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM),
Expected Rate Of Return = 
wherein,
= Risk free rate of return on treasury bonds
B= Beta , which represents the degree of sensitivity of security return to the market return.
= Return on market portfolio
Thus, Expected rate of return of security X = 6 + 1.2(12 - 6)
= 13.2%
CAPM model is used for calculating expected rate of return. As per the model, the investors expect a risk premium represented by excess of rate of return of market portfolio over risk free rate , in addition for the risk free rate of return.
The risk premium serves as a compensation for investing in risky securities instead of risk free securities.
The primary weakness of the imitation account is that it does not account for generatively.
Imitation based account of belief transmission more focus on the formation of belief because of the voluntariness of imitation and the non-voluntariness of belief formation. Imitation is powerful learning mechanism.
Answer:
The correct answer is letter "C": It decreases the size of your principal and decreases the total cost of the loan
.
Explanation:
Down payments are the initial sums debtors pay when requesting a credit. Down payments are usually mandatory but the debtor can offer the sum voluntarily.
<em />
<em>If the sum provided in the down payment is higher than what is requested, the amount of the principal will be lower. If the amount of the principal is lower, the total of the interest paid in the course to the loan will be lower as well, thus, the cost of the loan will be reduced.</em>
Although one would repair at the most time of 76 minutes, the other is at most 77.1 minutes. I would pick the second one because they may take longer by 1.1 minutes at most, they also included seconds, which seems more like an honest bid time.
Answer:
the value of the cash flow in year 5 is -$48
Explanation:
Cash flow in year 5 include a capital repayment and interest expense.This can be determined by constructing an amortization schedule from the data given.
The first step in constructing the amortization schedule is to find the Yield to Maturity.
Pv = -$600
Pmt = $600 × 8% = $48
P/yr = 1
N = 10
Fv = $600
YTM = ?
Using a Financial Calculator the Yield to Maturity is 8%.
then to determine the cash flow for year 5, we need the coupon amount (interest) and the amount of capital repayment.
Coupon $48
Capital $0
Total $48
Therefore the cash flow in year 5 is -$48.