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Stella [2.4K]
3 years ago
10

If bonds for Crayon Corporation, with a face value of $150,000, are converted into common stock when the carrying value of the b

onds is $135,000, the entry to record the conversion will include a debit to(A) Discount on Bonds Payable for $15,000.(B) Bonds Payable for $135,000.(C) Bonds Payable for $150,000.(D) Bonds Payable equal to the market price of the bonds on the date of conversion.(E) none of the above
Business
1 answer:
Llana [10]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

(C) Bonds Payable for $150,000

Explanation:

the face value of the bonds will the value at which bonds payable account enter the accounting. Then, there is a discount which decrease the net value of the bonds:

Bonds Payable        150,000 credit

Discount on bonds   15,000  debit

When the bonds are converted, we will write-off these account against common stock and additional paid-in

To wirte-off the account we need to post them in the other side so we got:

Bonds payable debit 150,000 debit

       Discount on bonds         15,000 credit

      Common Stock                       xx credit

      Additional paid.in                    xx credit

These makes option C correct

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Vedmedyk [2.9K]

<u>A. According to the constant dividend growth​ model, the value of the firm depends on the current dividend​ level, divided by the equity cost of capital plus the grow rate.</u>

This is the false statement.

<u>Explanation</u>:

The fair value of stock can be calculated using the dividend growth model. While calculating the value of the stock, the growth of the dividends should be considered either in a stable rate or at a different rate during the period at hand.

The dividend growth model is also known as a <u>valuation model</u> as it is used to achieve the value of the stock.

Equity cost is the cost that the firm owes to the equity investors to compensate the risk of their investment.

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3 years ago
The Dougherty Furniture Company manufactures tables. In March, the two production departments had budgeted allocation bases of 4
Bezzdna [24]

Answer:

a. Manufacturing overhead rate - Department 100 = $57,500 / 4,000 hours = $14.375 per machine hours

Manufacturing overhead rate - Department 200 = $62,500/8,000 hours = $7.8125 per machine hours

b.  Journal Entries

S/N    Account Titles                         Debit           Credit

1       Inventory - Raw material          $110,000

             Account Payable                                     $110,000

2    Work in process                            $32,500

     Manufacturing overhead              $7,500

             Inventory - Raw materials                         $40,000

3    Work in process                            $52,500

     Manufacturing overhead              $11,000

              Materials control                                       $63,500

4      Manufacturing overhead            $17,250

               Leasehold payable                                    $16,250

               Utilities payable                                          $1,000

5.     WIP Control (14,375*800)            $11,500

                Manufacturing overhead allocation         $11,500

c. Particulars                               Dep 100     Dep 200   Total

Direct materials                           $32,500     $13,500   $46,000

Direct labour                                $52,500     $13,500   $106,000

Manufacturing overhead             $35,750     $18,750   $54,500    

(11,000+7,500+16,250+1,000

+9,000+4,750+3,750+1,250)

Total Cost of Job A                     $120,750   $85,750    $206,500

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Levine Inc., which produces a single product, has prepared the following standard cost sheet for one unit of the product. Direct
FinnZ [79.3K]

Answer:

Total materials variance = (Actual quantity * Actual price) - (Standard quantity * Standard price)

= 2,850 - (230 * 14.4)

= 462 (Favourable)

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= [1.8 - (2,850/1,500)] * 1,500

= 150 Unfavourable

Materials quantity variance = (Standard quantity - Actual quantity) * Standard price

= [(230 * 8) - 1,500] * 1.8

= 612 Favourable

Total labour variance = (Actual hours * Actual rate) - (Standard hours * Standard rate)

= 19,458 - (230 * 84)

= 138 Unfavourable

Labour price variance = (Standard rate - Actual rate) *  Actual hours

= [14 - (19,458/1,410)] * 1,410

= 282 Favourable

Labour quantity variance = (Standard hours - Actual hours) * Standard rate

= [(230 * 6) - 1,410] * 14

= 420 Unfavourable

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Hi sweetie! Hope i can help!


Answer:

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Explanation:

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