Answer:
negative
Explanation:
Complementary goods have a negative cross-price elasticity because the increase in price of one tends to a weak or fall in consumer demand of the second. For instance, a hike in petrol will lead to a decrease in consumer demand for cars thereby giving rise to alternatives to these goods (most likely, there would be a surge in subway or rail patronage)
Answer:
The size of the coffee maker describes a requirement characteristic when Stephanie purchases her coffee maker
Explanation:
Stephanie has a space constraint in her kitchen as well as output constraint with respect to the existing coffee maker,hence,in resolving the two issues she has opted a smaller coffee maker that can turn out more coffee pots.
In order to strike a balance between two opposing views,Stephanie could either create more to accommodate a bigger coffee maker or buys a smaller super-efficient coffee maker that is more expensive.
Without, I think Stephanie would prefer the latter suggestion
The answer is b or a but I mean it both means the same thing, if this is on Plato it's a
Answer:
The correct answer is A)
Explanation:
There is no good or service that is unlimited.
The concept of the Barter system was simply a method of exchanging value for value.
- It was phased away due to several reasons:
- It was not a good store of value as many of the goods were perishable
- it didn't make for good administration: It was too cumbersome and problematic. Imagine having to store three trailers of eggs awaiting a barter exchange
Cheers!
Individuals differ in risk aversion because of differences in income or wealth.
- Risk aversion is the propensity of people to choose outcomes with low uncertainty over those with high uncertainty, even when the average outcome of the latter is equal to or higher in monetary worth than the more definite event. This tendency is shown in both economics and finance.
- Risk aversion is the tendency to avoid danger. A risk-averse investor is one who prioritizes money preservation over the potential for a higher-than-average return. Price volatility and investment risk are the same.
- If someone would rather take the risk and maybe receive nothing than accept a definite payment (certainty equivalent) of less than $50 (for instance, $40), they are considered to be risk averse. If they have no preference between the wager and a specific $50 payoff, they are risk neutral.
Thus the correct answer is d.
Refer here to learn more about risk aversion: brainly.com/question/8394406
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