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Zigmanuir [339]
3 years ago
11

As the manager of a golf resort, you want to increase the number of tee times sold by 10%. Your staff economist (and junior cadd

y) has determined that the price elasticity of demand for tee times is –1.5. To increase sales by the desired amount, how much should you decrease the price of a tee time in percentage terms?
(a)-6.67%
(b)-15.5%
(c)-8%
(d)-20%
Business
1 answer:
Alex73 [517]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

The price of tee-time should be reduced by 6.67%.

Explanation:

The price elasticity of demand for tee times is –1.5.  

The manager wants to increase the number of tee times sold by 10%.  

The price elasticity of demand shows the change in quantity demanded due to a change in the price level. It is the ratio of the percentage change in quantity demanded and percentage change in price.  

Price elasticity = \frac{\% \Delta Q}{\% \Delta P}

- 1.5 = \frac{10 \%}{\% \Delta P}

\% \Delta P = \frac{10}{- 1.5}

\% \Delta P = - 6.67 \%

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Suppose that the public holds 50% of the money supply in currency and the reserve requirement is 20%. Banks hold no excess reser
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Answer: $2,400; $2,400

Explanation:

If a deposit of $6,000 is made, the reserve requirement is 20% so the bank will have to reserve this amount of:

= 6,000 * 20%

= $1,200

The bank will be left with:

= 6,000 - 1,200

= $4,800

The bank lends all of this out.

The public holds 50% of the currency so they will keep:

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3 years ago
Apple Valley Corporation uses a job cost system and has two production departments, A and B. Budgeted manufacturing costs for th
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Answer:

For Department A, the manufacturing overhead allocation rate is : 300%

For Department B, the manufacturing overhead allocation rate is : 50%

Manufacturing overhead costs allocated to Job #432 : $30,000.

Explanation:

Apple Valley Corporation uses job cost system and it allocates overhead cost to job on basis of manufacturing labor cost.

1. To identify the manufacturing overhead allocation rate for department A:

(Manufacturing Overhead department A / Direct Manufacturing Labor Department A) * 100

= ($600,000 / $200,000) * 100

= 300%  

2. To identify the manufacturing overhead allocation rate for department B:

(Manufacturing Overhead department B / Direct Manufacturing Labor department B) * 100

= ($400,000 / $800,000) * 100

= 50%

3. To calculate the manufacturing overhead costs allocated to Job #432:

[(Department A direct labor * Manufacturing Overhead department A) / Direct Manufacturing Labor of department A ] + [(Department B direct labor * Manufacturing Overhead department B) / Direct Manufacturing Labor of department B ]

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4 0
3 years ago
According to the Mundell–Fleming model, in an economy with flexible exchange rates, expansionary fiscal policy causes net export
maxonik [38]

Answer: Decrease and Increase

Explanation:

According to the Mundell–Fleming model, in an economy with flexible exchange rates, expansionary fiscal policy will cause the net exports to decrease. Expansionary fiscal policy shifts the IS curve rightwards, as a result BOP surplus created in the economy. So, exchange rate decreases to shift the BOP back to its initial position. As a result of lower exchange rate, exports falls. Hence, net exports decreases.

Expansionary Monetary policy will cause the net exports to increases. Expansionary Monetary policy shifts the LM curve rightwards, as a result BOP deficit created in the economy. So, exchange rate increases to shift the BOP back to its initial position. As a result of higher exchange rate, exports increases. Hence, net exports increases.

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3 years ago
Bianca is conducting an experiment to determine how temperatures affect the productivity of employees. she has just completed th
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The next dividend payment by Savitz, Inc., will be $1.44 per share. The dividends are anticipated to maintain a growth rate of 6
defon

Answer:

Dividend yield = 5.54%

The expected capital gains yield = 6%

Explanation:

Next Dividend (D1) = $1.44

Growth rate (g) = 6%

Required return (Ke) = 6% + 5.54% = 11.54%

Ke-g = 11.54% - 6% = 5.54%

Price = D1 / (ke / g) = 1.44 /  5.54% = $25.9927 = $26

a. Dividend yield = D1 / Price = $1.44 / $26

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Dividend yield = 0.0554

Dividend yield = 5.54%

b.  The expected capital gains yield = Required return (Ke) - Dividend yield

The expected capital gains yield = 11.54% - 5.54%

The expected capital gains yield = 6%

4 0
3 years ago
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