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LenKa [72]
4 years ago
10

What is the answer to 8×3÷6×10÷20=​

Mathematics
2 answers:
victus00 [196]4 years ago
6 0

Answer:

2?

Step-by-step explanation:

sleet_krkn [62]4 years ago
4 0
The answer to your question is 2
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Can you help me with this please
Shalnov [3]

Answer:

  see below

Step-by-step explanation:

If (x+5) is a factor of p(x), then the value x=-5 will make that factor be zero. The product p(x) of which it is a part will also be zero, so p(-5) = 0.

Since p(-5) = 0 at x=-5, there will be an x-intercept at x=-5.

Dividing something by a factor of that thing will always give a remainder of zero. So, p(x)/(x+5) has a remainder of 0.

3 0
3 years ago
ou find a deck of cards and know that the deck has too many clubs and spades in it. The deck has 59 cards. If you were to draw t
sashaice [31]
We can find the number of extra clubs in the deck from the given probability, since the probability of drawing a diamond and a club is

\dfrac{\binom{13}1\binom{13+c}1}{\binom{59}2}=\dfrac{13(13+c)}{1711}

but this would imply that c=-4, which suggests we're taking 4 clubs out of the original deck and contradicts the problem statement that there are "too many clubs".

Perhaps the question is providing the probability of drawing a diamond, THEN a club, or vice versa. In that case, we have

\dfrac{\binom{13}1}{\binom{59}1}\cdot\dfrac{\binom{13+c}1}{\binom{58}1}=\dfrac{13(13+c)}{3422}

and solving gives c=5, which makes more sense. Then the number of extra spades in the deck must be 2.
7 0
3 years ago
A group of 42 people are going to a restaurant. Each table at the restaurant can seat 6
jenyasd209 [6]

Answer: Okay the numbers you put was confusing but I think I got it.

42÷6=x

Step-by-step explanation:if 6 can sit a a table then dividing the number of people by 6 gives the answer.

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Helppp pleaseee :)))
dalvyx [7]

Answer:

1)

Y-intercept: -3

Slope: 2

Equation: y = 2x - 3

Step-by-step explanation:

I just answered one since it was only for 5 points. :)

6 0
3 years ago
HElp K 12 test! Will give brainiest PLS HELP!!!!
Salsk061 [2.6K]

Answer:

1. d  2. a  3. d  4. a  5. a

Step-by-step explanation:

For 1, d is negative because, if there an even number of negatives, the answer will be positive. a. would have been correct, but you multiply that one by 0. 0 is not negative, so the answer has to be d.

2. is -21. You can multiply 3 times seven then make it negative, or simply add -7 together 3 times.

3. is d because the two negatives cancel each other out. Even numbers of negatives cancel each other out. therefore, 17 times 6 is 102.

4. -120 is the answer because there are 3 negatives. That is an odd number, so we know our answer is negative. -5 times -3 is 15, and 15 times -8 is -120.

5. is a because -1 times 4 is -4, then -4 times -9 is 36. 36 times -3 is then -108.

8 0
3 years ago
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