Answer: A
Step-by-step explanation:
This is not the answer but i love ur pfp
The correct answer is A) 2/5
That is because the probability of it is equal to the number of numbers larger than 6 divided by 10, which is 4/10, or 2/5 when reduced.
Answer:
f'(x)=-(x+42)/5
Step-by-step explanation:
Rewrite f(x) as y:
y=-5x-42
Flip x and y and solve for y:
x=-5y-42
x+42=-5y
(x+42)/-5=y
So the inverse function is f'(x)=-(x+42)/5 (note that f' means inverse)
Answer:
The correct answer is: A = 1/2 bh V = integral A(x) from [-r, r].
Step-by-step explanation:
x^2 +y^2 = r^2 A = 1/2 bh b = 2y = 2sqrt[r^2 - x^2] so that gives A = 1/2 [ 2sqrt(r^2 - x^2)]h which gives A = sqrt[r^2 - x^2]h