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Olegator [25]
4 years ago
5

A particle moves with velocity function v(t) =

^{2} " alt=" 3t^{2} " align="absmiddle" class="latex-formula"> − 4t + 1, with v measured in feet per second and t measured in seconds. Find the acceleration of the particle at time t = 3 seconds.
2 divided by 3 feet per second^2
7 feet per second^2
14 feet per second^2
21 feet per second^2

Mathematics
2 answers:
geniusboy [140]4 years ago
7 0
V'(t)=a(t)

deriviive of the velocity is the acceleration

easy peasy
dy/dx v(t)=6t-4
v'(t)=a(t)=6t-4

at=t=3
a(3)=6(3)-4
a(3)=18-4
a(3)=14 ft per second squared

3rd answer
Ivahew [28]4 years ago
6 0
Acceleration is the rate of change of velocity.
So take the derivative of the velocity which would be a =6t-4.  When t=3, a=14 ft/sec^2
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6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
What is the sum? StartFraction 3 y Over y squared + 7 y + 10 EndFraction + StartFraction 2 Over y + 2 EndFraction
katovenus [111]

Answer:

\dfrac{5}{y+5}

Step-by-step explanation:

Here, we have to find the sum of 2 fractions:

1st fraction: \dfrac{3y}{y^{2}+7y+10}

2nd fraction: \dfrac{2}{y+2}

Considering the denominator of 1st fraction:

y^{2}+7y+10

Using factorization method:

7y can be written as (2y + 5y).

\Rightarrow y^{2}+2y+5y+10

Taking <em>5 common</em> from 5y+10 and <em>y common</em> from y^{2}+2y: \Rightarrow y(y+2)+5(y+2)

Now taking (y+2) common:

\Rightarrow (y+5)(y+2)

\dfrac{3y}{y^{2}+7y+10} can be written as \dfrac{3y}{(y+5)(y+2)}

Now, calculating the sum:

\dfrac{2y}{(y+5)(y+2)} + \dfrac{2}{y+2}

Taking <em>LCM</em> and solving:

\Rightarrow \dfrac{3y+2(y+5)}{(y+5)(y+2)}\\\Rightarrow \dfrac{5y+10}{(y+5)(y+2)}\\\Rightarrow \dfrac{5(y+2)}{(y+5)(y+2)}\\\Rightarrow \dfrac{5}{(y+5)}

Hence, answer is \dfrac{5}{y+5}.

4 0
3 years ago
How do u reduce 60/72
shusha [124]
You divide by 2/2 and get 30/36 then divide again 2/2
15/18

Hope this helps :D
5 0
4 years ago
Two fractions that lie between 1/4 and 1/2 thanks
pochemuha
1/3 

2/5

Hope this helps :)

4 0
4 years ago
Assume that we have m coins. We toss each one of them n times. The probability of heads showing up for each coin isp. What’s the
olga nikolaevna [1]

Answer:

1-(1-p^n)^m

Step-by-step explanation:

For a coin, the probability of head showing in a single toss is p.

P(H)=p

Its complement, the probability of not head is

P(\Sim H)=1-p

This is a binomial distribution. In n tosses, the probability of having all heads (i.e. n heads) is

P(\text{all heads})=\binom{n}{n}p^n(1-p)^0=p^n

Let's call this value a.

For m coins, we determine the probability of at least 1 coin showing all heads by first finding its complement i.e. the probability of no coin showing all heads. This is also a binomial distribution.

P(\text{no coin showing all heads})=\binom{m}{0}a^0(1-a)^m=(1-a)^m

P(\text{at least 1 coin showing all heads})=1-P(\text{no coin showing all heads})

P(\text{no coin showing all heads})=1-(1-a)^m=1-(1-p^n)^m

8 0
3 years ago
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