Using the binomial distribution, it is found that there is a 0% probability that fewer that 5 in a sample of 20 pills will be acceptable.
For each pill, there are only two possible outcomes, either it is acceptable, or it is not. The probability of a pill being acceptable is independent of any other pill, which means that the binomial distribution is used to solve this question.
Binomial probability distribution
The parameters are:
- x is the number of successes.
- n is the number of trials.
- p is the probability of a success on a single trial.
In this problem:
- The sample has 20 pills, hence
.
- 100 - 4 = 96% are acceptable, hence

The probability that <u>fewer that 5 in a sample of 20 pills</u> will be acceptable is:

In which






0% probability that fewer that 5 in a sample of 20 pills will be acceptable.
A similar problem is given at brainly.com/question/24863377
Answer:
9/20
Step-by-step explanation:
To solve this problem, you must find a common denominator. First, you multiply the denominators together, then, multiply the numerator of the first fraction by the original denominator of the second fraction and vis-versa.
<span>3*4 = denominator of both
</span><span>2*4 = numerator of first fraction
</span><span>3*3 = numerator of second fraction
</span>
Your fractions should end up being 8/12 cups of raisins and 9/12 cup of almonds. You can now compare these fractions.
<span>Overall, there are 1/12 more almonds than raisins.</span>
A mixed number is one that has an integer along with a proper fraction, so that would be (for this improper fraction):
50/12 = 4 1/6
12 goes into 50, 4 times with a remainder of 2
you get: 4 and 2/12, but 2/12 can be reduced further to 1/6
so that's how i got the answer of 4 1/6