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2 years ago

3 values that would make this inequality true. 28+ x > 42

Mathematics

1 answer:

Mumz [18]2 years ago

4 0

24, 36, 42 these aare answers that you can add to 28 that will give you something bigger then 42

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Given a segment with endpoints A and B, What figure can you construct using the steps below?

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I believe the correct answer from the choices listed above is option A. Given a segment with endpoints A and B and the steps given above, the figure that you can construct would be a perpendicular bisector. The perpendicular bisector of a line segment can be constructed using a compass by drawing circles centered at and with radius and connecting their two intersections.

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2 years ago

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2 years ago

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sdas [7]

Answer: they will each spend $6.75

Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago

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A real estate agent has 1212 properties that she shows. She feels that there is a 50P% chance of selling any one property during

forsale [732]

Answer:

0.6127 = 61.27% probability of selling no more than 6 properties in one week.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each property, there are only two possible outcomes. Either it is sold, or it is not. The probability of a property being sold is independent of any other property. This means that the binomial probability distribution is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

In which $C_{n,x}$ is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

$C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}$

And p is the probability of X happening.

12 properties

This means that $n = 12$

She feels that there is a 50% chance of selling any one property during a week.

This means that $p = 0.5$

Compute the probability of selling no more than 6 properties in one week.

This is:

$P(X \leq 6) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) + P(X = 3) + P(X = 4) + P(X = 5) + P(X = 6)$

In which

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

$P(X = 0) = C_{12,0}.(0.5)^{0}.(0.5)^{12} = 0.0002$

$P(X = 1) = C_{12,1}.(0.5)^{1}.(0.5)^{11} = 0.0029$

$P(X = 2) = C_{12,2}.(0.5)^{2}.(0.5)^{10} = 0.0161$

$P(X = 3) = C_{12,3}.(0.5)^{3}.(0.5)^{9} = 0.0537$

$P(X = 4) = C_{12,4}.(0.5)^{4}.(0.5)^{8} = 0.1208$

$P(X = 5) = C_{12,5}.(0.5)^{5}.(0.5)^{7} = 0.1934$

$P(X = 6) = C_{12,6}.(0.5)^{6}.(0.5)^{6} = 0.2256$

$P(X \leq 6) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) + P(X = 3) + P(X = 4) + P(X = 5) + P(X = 6) = 0.0002 + 0.0029 + 0.0161 + 0.0537 + 0.1208 + 0.1934 + 0.2256 = 0.6127$

0.6127 = 61.27% probability of selling no more than 6 properties in one week.

6 0

2 years ago

The price of a bicycle was increased from $300 to $450. A) What percent of the original price is the increase price. B) What per

Lisa [10]

A) 150% of the original price is the increased price.

B) 66.66% of the increased price is the original price.

Step-by-step explanation:

Original price = $300

Increased price= $450

A) the increased price = 450

Percent of the increased price = (450/300) 100

= 150%

150% of the original price is the increased price.

B) percent of the original price= (300/450) 100

= 66.66%

66.66% of the increased price is the original price.

6 0

3 years ago